- #1
skate_nerd
- 176
- 0
I am given that the relation ~ is defined on the set of real numbers by \(x\)~\(y\) iff \(x^2=y^2\). First part of the problem said to prove ~ is an equivalence relation, that wasn't bad. The second part asks to "Describe the equivalence classes". This just seems really vague to me. Is this a common question, with a specific answer expected? I don't need anybody to do the problem for me just an idea of how to answer the question would be appreciated :p