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Thought about this a bit more...haruspex said:In that case there is no torque.
There are two sources of rolling resistance: frictional torque from the axle and deformation of the tyre/road. Both are proportional to the load, but we are given only the one coefficient.
What I wrote previously applies to the deformation component. It does not have a torque about the axle. Instead, it is a bit lke going uphill. The force from the road surface is not vertical, instead angling back against the direction of motion. The point on the ground it comes from is (on average) in front of the axle, so that the force line passes through the axle. So although it has no torque about the axle it contributes to the bending moment. Use Pythagoras to combine it with the vertical component you already have.
The frictional torque component will produce torque in the axle.