- #1
Mayan Fung
- 131
- 14
We know that the solution to the Legendre equation:
$$ (1-x^2)\frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} - 2x \frac{dy}{dx} + n(n+1) = 0 $$
is the Legendre polynomial $$ y(x) = a_n P_n (x)$$
However, this is a second order differential equation. I am wondering why there is only one leading coefficient. We need two conditions to determine the unique solution to a 2nd order ODE, don't we?
$$ (1-x^2)\frac{d^2 y}{dx^2} - 2x \frac{dy}{dx} + n(n+1) = 0 $$
is the Legendre polynomial $$ y(x) = a_n P_n (x)$$
However, this is a second order differential equation. I am wondering why there is only one leading coefficient. We need two conditions to determine the unique solution to a 2nd order ODE, don't we?