- #1
Tertius
- 58
- 10
- TL;DR Summary
- A free scalar field solution for the situation of 1) static, and 2) homogeneous and isotropic yield either trigonometric or exponential solutions. The first would seem to be a harmonic oscillator, the second seems to be a simple field being dispersed across space. How can these be interpreted?
A general free field Lagrangian in curved spacetime (- + + +), is given by:
L = -1/2 ∇cΦ ∇cΦ - V(Φ)
when the derivative index is lowered, we obtain:
L = -1/2 gdc∇dΦ ∇cΦ - V(Φ)
then we can choose to replace V(Φ) with something like 1/2 b2 Φ2 so:
L = -1/2 gdc∇dΦ ∇cΦ - 1/2 b2 Φ2
** I will only give the fields and solutions in terms of t and x for simplicity (ignoring y and z). And because we are acting on a scalar the covariant derivatives can be replaced with partial derivatives.
Case 1: let's assume the field only changes with time (i.e. is homogeneous and isotropic), Φ(t,x) -> Φ(t), which then yields the Lagrangian (a Lagrangian that contains only non-derivative terms should have the field forced to equal 0):
L = -1/2 * -1 * ∂tΦ ∂tΦ - 1/2 b2 Φ2
which gives the equations of motion:
Φ''(t) = -1/2 b2Φ(t)
which can be easily solved for a general solution:
Φ(t) = c1cos(b t) + c2 sin(b t)
Case 2: let's assume the field only changes with space (i.e. is static), Φ(t,x) -> Φ(x), which then yields the Lagrangian:
L = -1/2 * 1 * ∂xΦ ∂xΦ - 1/2 b2 Φ2
which gives the equations of motion:
Φ''(x) = 1/2 b2Φ(x)
which can be easily solved for a general solution:
Φ(t) = c1ebx + c2e-bxIf the math I showed above doesn't have any glaring errors, this leads me to a few questions:
1) why would this field yield a trigonometric solution that clearly oscillates over time when the field is homogeneous and isotropic?
2) and why would it only yield an exponential decay/growth in the spatial direction?
3) I realize plane wave solutions derived using Fourier transform are often used as solutions, are they any more correct than these solutions? It seems like the plane wave solutions result in a vectorized wave that typically corresponds to particle behavior. are the solutions I gave valid for particles as well as fields? any insight here is appreciated.
L = -1/2 ∇cΦ ∇cΦ - V(Φ)
when the derivative index is lowered, we obtain:
L = -1/2 gdc∇dΦ ∇cΦ - V(Φ)
then we can choose to replace V(Φ) with something like 1/2 b2 Φ2 so:
L = -1/2 gdc∇dΦ ∇cΦ - 1/2 b2 Φ2
** I will only give the fields and solutions in terms of t and x for simplicity (ignoring y and z). And because we are acting on a scalar the covariant derivatives can be replaced with partial derivatives.
Case 1: let's assume the field only changes with time (i.e. is homogeneous and isotropic), Φ(t,x) -> Φ(t), which then yields the Lagrangian (a Lagrangian that contains only non-derivative terms should have the field forced to equal 0):
L = -1/2 * -1 * ∂tΦ ∂tΦ - 1/2 b2 Φ2
which gives the equations of motion:
Φ''(t) = -1/2 b2Φ(t)
which can be easily solved for a general solution:
Φ(t) = c1cos(b t) + c2 sin(b t)
Case 2: let's assume the field only changes with space (i.e. is static), Φ(t,x) -> Φ(x), which then yields the Lagrangian:
L = -1/2 * 1 * ∂xΦ ∂xΦ - 1/2 b2 Φ2
which gives the equations of motion:
Φ''(x) = 1/2 b2Φ(x)
which can be easily solved for a general solution:
Φ(t) = c1ebx + c2e-bxIf the math I showed above doesn't have any glaring errors, this leads me to a few questions:
1) why would this field yield a trigonometric solution that clearly oscillates over time when the field is homogeneous and isotropic?
2) and why would it only yield an exponential decay/growth in the spatial direction?
3) I realize plane wave solutions derived using Fourier transform are often used as solutions, are they any more correct than these solutions? It seems like the plane wave solutions result in a vectorized wave that typically corresponds to particle behavior. are the solutions I gave valid for particles as well as fields? any insight here is appreciated.