Differentiable function proof given ##f''(c) = 1##

In summary, the proof that a function \( f \) is differentiable at a point \( c \) given that its second derivative \( f''(c) = 1 \) demonstrates that the behavior of \( f \) around \( c \) is locally linear. The existence of the second derivative implies that \( f' \) is continuous in the neighborhood of \( c \), which, along with the value of \( f''(c) \), suggests a smooth transition in the function's slope, confirming the differentiability of \( f \) at that point.
  • #1
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Homework Statement
Please see below
Relevant Equations
Please see below
For this problem,
1717373282545.png

I'm confused by the implication from the antecedent ##0 < |x - c| < \delta## to the consequent. Should the consequent not be ##|f''(x) - f''(c)| < \frac{1}{2}## where ##\epsilon = \frac{1}{2}## (Since we are applying the definition of a limit for the first derivative curve)?

##|f''(x) - f''(c)| < \frac{1}{2}##

##\leftrightarrow |f''(x) - \frac{f'(x) - f'(c)}{x - c}| < \frac{1}{2}##

##\leftrightarrow |f''(x) - 1| < \frac{1}{2}##

I don't understand why they don't have ##f''(x)## in their expression. Does someone please know why?

Thanks!
 
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  • #2
ChiralSuperfields said:
Homework Statement: Please see below
Relevant Equations: Please see below

For this problem,
View attachment 346372
I'm confused by the implication from the antecedent ##0 < |x - c| < \delta## to the consequent. Should the consequent not be ##|f''(x) - f''(c)| < \frac{1}{2}## where ##\epsilon = \frac{1}{2}## (Since we are applying the definition of a limit for the first derivative curve)?
Why? We already have ##f''(c)=1.## The statement is just a reformulation of this fact by using the definition of a derivative, choosing ##\varepsilon =0.5## and the definition of a limit with this given margin ##\varepsilon .## The proof goes:

\begin{align*}
1&=f''(c)\stackrel{\text{short for}}{=}\left. \dfrac{d}{dx} \right|_{x=c}f'(x)\stackrel{\text{def. of derivative of }f'}{=}\lim_{x \to c}\dfrac{f'(x)-f'(c)}{x-c}\\[12pt]
0&=\left(\lim_{x \to c}\dfrac{f'(x)-f'(c)}{x-c}\right)-1=\lim_{x \to c}\left(\dfrac{f'(x)-f'(c)}{x-c} - 1\right)\\[12pt]
&\left|\dfrac{f'(x)-f'(c)}{x-c}-1\right| \stackrel{\text{def. of limit at }x=c}{<} \varepsilon :=\dfrac{1}{2} \text{ for all } |x-c|<\delta\\[12pt]
&\substack{\text{definition of} \\ \text{the absolute values}}\quad\dfrac{1}{2}=1-\varepsilon <\dfrac{f'(x)-f'(c)}{x-c}<1+\varepsilon =\dfrac{3}{2} \text{ for all } c-\delta <x<c+\delta
\end{align*}
 
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FAQ: Differentiable function proof given ##f''(c) = 1##

What does it mean for a function to be differentiable?

A function is said to be differentiable at a point if it has a defined derivative at that point. This means that the function is locally linear around that point, and its graph does not have any sharp corners or vertical tangents. Differentiability implies continuity, but the reverse is not necessarily true.

What does the notation f''(c) = 1 signify?

The notation f''(c) = 1 indicates that the second derivative of the function f at the point c is equal to 1. This means that the rate of change of the slope of the function at that point is constant and equal to 1, suggesting that the function is concave up at that point and that its graph is curving upwards.

How can we prove that f is differentiable given f''(c) = 1?

To prove that f is differentiable, we can use the definition of the derivative and the properties of continuous functions. Since f''(c) = 1, it implies that the first derivative f'(x) is increasing at c. By the Mean Value Theorem, if f' exists in an interval around c, then f is differentiable at c. The existence of f''(c) implies that f' is continuous, thus ensuring differentiability.

What implications does f''(c) = 1 have on the behavior of f near c?

The condition f''(c) = 1 suggests that near the point c, the function f behaves like a quadratic function with a positive curvature. Specifically, it implies that there exists an interval around c where the function will be increasing at an increasing rate, leading to a local minimum or point of inflection depending on the behavior of f' in that region.

Can f''(c) = 1 occur at points where f is not differentiable?

No, if f''(c) = 1, then f must be differentiable at c. The existence of the second derivative implies that the first derivative is continuous and thus differentiable at that point. If f were not differentiable at c, then the second derivative f''(c) would not be defined, making it impossible for f''(c) to equal 1.

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