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I am reading Andrew Browder's book: "Mathematical Analysis: An Introduction" ... ...
I am currently reading Chapter 8: Differentiable Maps and am specifically focused on Section 8.2 Differentials ... ...
I need some further help in fully understanding some remarks by Browder made after Definition 8.9 ...
Definition 8.9 and the following remark read as follows:
View attachment 9408
In the above Remark by Browder we read the following:
"for any fixed \(\displaystyle k \neq 0\) and \(\displaystyle t \gt 0\), we have \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{ |tk| }( L(tk) - M(tk) ) = \frac{1}{|k|},(Lk - Mk )\) ... ... ... "
My questions are as follows:Question 1
Browder puts \(\displaystyle h = tk\) and then let's \(\displaystyle t \to 0\) ... why is Browder doing this ... what is the logic behind this ... what do we gain by putting \(\displaystyle h = tk\) ... both \(\displaystyle h\) and \(\displaystyle k \in \mathbb{R}^n \) and also isn't \(\displaystyle h\) just as arbitrary as \(\displaystyle k\) ... ?
Question 2
How exactly (and in detail) does letting \(\displaystyle t \to 0\) allow us to conclude that \(\displaystyle Lk = Mk\) ...
Help will be much appreciated ...
Peter
I am currently reading Chapter 8: Differentiable Maps and am specifically focused on Section 8.2 Differentials ... ...
I need some further help in fully understanding some remarks by Browder made after Definition 8.9 ...
Definition 8.9 and the following remark read as follows:
View attachment 9408
In the above Remark by Browder we read the following:
"for any fixed \(\displaystyle k \neq 0\) and \(\displaystyle t \gt 0\), we have \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{ |tk| }( L(tk) - M(tk) ) = \frac{1}{|k|},(Lk - Mk )\) ... ... ... "
My questions are as follows:Question 1
Browder puts \(\displaystyle h = tk\) and then let's \(\displaystyle t \to 0\) ... why is Browder doing this ... what is the logic behind this ... what do we gain by putting \(\displaystyle h = tk\) ... both \(\displaystyle h\) and \(\displaystyle k \in \mathbb{R}^n \) and also isn't \(\displaystyle h\) just as arbitrary as \(\displaystyle k\) ... ?
Question 2
How exactly (and in detail) does letting \(\displaystyle t \to 0\) allow us to conclude that \(\displaystyle Lk = Mk\) ...
Help will be much appreciated ...
Peter