- #1
tade
- 721
- 26
I came across this simple expression while doing some maths.
If [tex]\frac{d}{dx}f(x)=g(x)[/tex]
Then [tex]\frac{d}{dx}f(-x)=-g(-x)[/tex]
Is this correct? How do we prove it?
If [tex]\frac{d}{dx}f(x)=g(x)[/tex]
Then [tex]\frac{d}{dx}f(-x)=-g(-x)[/tex]
Is this correct? How do we prove it?