- #1
avocadogirl
- 53
- 0
Why does the derivative of (sin(x* theta))/(2x-1) equal [(-2sin(x*theta))/(2x-1)^2]?
I'm an undergraduate physics student with a shaky math background, who's enrolled in an advanced Physics math class for which I lack prerequisites. I'm working an infinite series where the general term comes to (sin(x*theta))/(2x-1) and, applying the quotient rule to take the derivative, I get the result:
(2x-1)(cos(x*theta))-(2sin(x*theta))
_______________________________
(2x-1) ^2
But, my TI-89 eliminates the first part of the numerator, giving me
[(-2sin(x*theta))/(2x-1)^2]
I don't really need help with the problem I'm solving, I would just like to know why the cos term is eliminated. I can't seem to find an identity to explain this, or, at least, I can't see the correlation. Any assistance is sincerely appreciated.
Thank you.
I'm an undergraduate physics student with a shaky math background, who's enrolled in an advanced Physics math class for which I lack prerequisites. I'm working an infinite series where the general term comes to (sin(x*theta))/(2x-1) and, applying the quotient rule to take the derivative, I get the result:
(2x-1)(cos(x*theta))-(2sin(x*theta))
_______________________________
(2x-1) ^2
But, my TI-89 eliminates the first part of the numerator, giving me
[(-2sin(x*theta))/(2x-1)^2]
I don't really need help with the problem I'm solving, I would just like to know why the cos term is eliminated. I can't seem to find an identity to explain this, or, at least, I can't see the correlation. Any assistance is sincerely appreciated.
Thank you.