Differentiation of Inverse Trigonometric Functions

In summary, Inverse trigonometric functions can be evaluated using the following formula: dy/dx=1/cos(y)
  • #1
sharp
7
0
Hey guys, I have to know how to Differentiate Inverse Trigonometric Functions in my next exam and need somewhere to study up on them. Do you know of any web sites I could read? Can't find anything on Karl's Calculus.

Thanks
 
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  • #2
Well, the integral of [tex] \frac{1}{ a^2 + x^2 } [/tex] is [tex] \frac{1}{a}tan^{-1}(x/a) [/tex]. There are a few more standard ones for inverse sin and cos, but can't remember them off the top of my head.

Edit: I think its [tex] \frac{1}{\sqrt{a^2 - x^2}} [/tex] for [tex] sin^{-1}(x/a), and the negative of that for inverse cos, but don't quote me on that.
 
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  • #3
sharp said:
Hey guys, I have to know how to Differentiate Inverse Trigonometric Functions in my next exam and need somewhere to study up on them. Do you know of any web sites I could read? Can't find anything on Karl's Calculus.

Thanks
Consider for example y =arcsin(x).

The way to do this is to rewrite this as sin(y) =x and to differentiate both sides so that cos(y) dy = dx, so you get dy/dx= 1/cos(y)

Now, you need to rewrite cos(y) in terms of x. The trick is this: we started from y =arcsin(x) or, equivalently, sin(y) =x. So think of y as an angle in arigt angle triangle. Then x would have to be the side opposite to that angle divided by the hypothenuse of the triangle, right?

so y = angle and x = opposite side/hypothenuse.

Just with that we cannot fix the opposite side or the hypothenuse separately but might as well take the easiest possibility: let's say that the opposite side *is* x and that the hypothenuse is equal to one.
So we have a right angle triangle with an hypothenuse of 1 and one side of length x and an angle y which is opposite to the side of length x. So far so good?

Now, what is cos (y) in that triangle? It is the adjacent side to the angle y divided by the hypothenuse. The hypothenuse is 1 and the adjacent side is obviously sqrt(hyp^2 -opp^2) = sqrt(1 - x^2).
So cos(y) =sqrt(1-x^2)

so finally, dy/dx = 1/cos(y) = 1/sqrt(1-x^2)

You can look up the results for any other inverse trig function and rederive them using the same approach.

Hope this helps.

Patrick
 
  • #4
nrqed said:
Consider for example y =arcsin(x).

The way to do this is to rewrite this as sin(y) =x and to differentiate both sides so that cos(y) dy = dx, so you get dy/dx= 1/cos(y)

Now, you need to rewrite cos(y) in terms of x. The trick is this: we started from y =arcsin(x) or, equivalently, sin(y) =x. So think of y as an angle in arigt angle triangle. Then x would have to be the side opposite to that angle divided by the hypothenuse of the triangle, right?

so y = angle and x = opposite side/hypothenuse.

Just with that we cannot fix the opposite side or the hypothenuse separately but might as well take the easiest possibility: let's say that the opposite side *is* x and that the hypothenuse is equal to one.
So we have a right angle triangle with an hypothenuse of 1 and one side of length x and an angle y which is opposite to the side of length x. So far so good?

Now, what is cos (y) in that triangle? It is the adjacent side to the angle y divided by the hypothenuse. The hypothenuse is 1 and the adjacent side is obviously sqrt(hyp^2 -opp^2) = sqrt(1 - x^2).
So cos(y) =sqrt(1-x^2)

so finally, dy/dx = 1/cos(y) = 1/sqrt(1-x^2)

You can look up the results for any other inverse trig function and rederive them using the same approach.

Hope this helps.

Patrick

Just to add on to Patrick's excellent post, there are six basic and derived circular inverse trig ratios (arcsin, arccos, arctan, arccosec, arcsec, arccot). But you don't have to remember all of them. Just remember arcsin, arccosec and arctan and the rest can be easily derived from them.

Observe that (using the first quadrant domain),

[tex]\arcsin(x) + \arccos(x) = arccsc(x) + arcsec(x) = \arctan(x) + arccot(x) =
\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex]

So when you have differentiated y = arcsin(x) to get y',

[tex]z = \arccos(x) = \frac{\pi}{2} - \arcsin(x)[/tex]

[tex]z' = -y'[/tex]

and so forth for the other inverse trig ratios.
 
  • #5
I've never used the derivative of arccosecant. :cry:
 
  • #6
arildno said:
I've never used the derivative of arccosecant. :cry:

Well, evaluate [tex]\int{-\frac{1}{x\sqrt{x^2-1}}}dx[/tex], then. :biggrin:
 

FAQ: Differentiation of Inverse Trigonometric Functions

1. What is the general formula for differentiating inverse trigonometric functions?

The general formula for differentiating inverse trigonometric functions is d/dx (sin-1x) = 1/√(1-x2), d/dx (cos-1x) = -1/√(1-x2), and d/dx (tan-1x) = 1/(1+x2). These formulas can also be used for other inverse trigonometric functions such as csc-1x, sec-1x, and cot-1x by using the reciprocal identities.

2. How do you differentiate inverse trigonometric functions using the chain rule?

To differentiate inverse trigonometric functions using the chain rule, you first need to rewrite the inverse trigonometric function as its corresponding trigonometric function, such as sin-1x = sin-1(sin x). Then, apply the chain rule by taking the derivative of the outer function (inverse trigonometric function) with respect to the inner function (trigonometric function). Finally, multiply the result by the derivative of the inner function. For example, to differentiate sin-1x using the chain rule, you would get 1/√(1-x2) * cos x.

3. What is the derivative of arcsin x?

The derivative of arcsin x is 1/√(1-x2). This can be derived by using the chain rule and the fact that sin(sin-1x) = x.

4. How do you differentiate inverse trigonometric functions using the quotient rule?

To differentiate inverse trigonometric functions using the quotient rule, you first need to rewrite the function as a fraction, such as tan-1x = sin-1x / cos-1x. Then, apply the quotient rule by taking the derivative of the numerator and denominator separately and using the formula (f'g - fg') / g2. For example, to differentiate tan-1x using the quotient rule, you would get (1/√(1-x2) - x/((1-x2)3/2).

5. Can you differentiate inverse trigonometric functions using the product rule?

No, you cannot differentiate inverse trigonometric functions using the product rule. The product rule is used to differentiate the product of two functions, but inverse trigonometric functions cannot be expressed as a product of two functions. They can only be differentiated using the chain rule, quotient rule, or the general formula.

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