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I am reading An Introduction to Rings and Modules With K-Theory in View by A.J. Berrick and M.E. Keating (B&K).
I an trying to gain a full understanding of direct products and external direct sums of modules and need some help in this matter ... ...
B&K define the external sum of an arbitrary finite set of modules as follows:
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3357Now the above definition of an external direct sum seem to me to be identical to the definition of a direct product of a finite set of right \(\displaystyle R\)-modules ... ...
... ... So ... in the finite case it is not just that the external direct sum and the direct product are isomorphic or equal in some particular way ... they are defined the same way ... no difference at all, even in the definition!Am I understanding things correctly?
Then in B&K Section 2.1.11 "Infinite Direct Sums" we read:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3358Well of course, the direct product and external direct sum for the infinite case are defined differently ... ... so, of course, they are different ... indeed it is claimed that (and is intuitively likely that) in the infinite case as above, the external direct sum is a submodule of the direct product ... ... ...
OK ... ... but the differences in the infinite case follow from the different definitions ... BUT ... WHY are B&K doing this! ... what is their motivation and what are the benefits of having these two cases as defined above ...
Can someone please help in this matter ...
Peter
I an trying to gain a full understanding of direct products and external direct sums of modules and need some help in this matter ... ...
B&K define the external sum of an arbitrary finite set of modules as follows:
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3357Now the above definition of an external direct sum seem to me to be identical to the definition of a direct product of a finite set of right \(\displaystyle R\)-modules ... ...
... ... So ... in the finite case it is not just that the external direct sum and the direct product are isomorphic or equal in some particular way ... they are defined the same way ... no difference at all, even in the definition!Am I understanding things correctly?
Then in B&K Section 2.1.11 "Infinite Direct Sums" we read:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3358Well of course, the direct product and external direct sum for the infinite case are defined differently ... ... so, of course, they are different ... indeed it is claimed that (and is intuitively likely that) in the infinite case as above, the external direct sum is a submodule of the direct product ... ... ...
OK ... ... but the differences in the infinite case follow from the different definitions ... BUT ... WHY are B&K doing this! ... what is their motivation and what are the benefits of having these two cases as defined above ...
Can someone please help in this matter ...
Peter