Distance between m=0/m=1 bright fringes

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The problem involves calculating the distance between the m=0 and m=1 bright fringes for a double-slit experiment with slits separated by 2.00x10^-5 meters and illuminated by 500 nm light at a distance of 8.0 meters. The correct formula used is d = m * lambda * L / y, where d is the distance, m is the fringe order, lambda is the wavelength, and L is the distance to the screen. The initial calculation for m=1 yields 0.2 meters, but confusion arises regarding the correct interpretation of the fringe orders. It is clarified that the answer should be 20 cm, correcting an earlier misinterpretation. The discussion highlights the importance of understanding fringe order conventions in interference patterns.
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Homework Statement


Two slits separated by 2.00x10^-5 are illuminated by light of wavelength 500nm. If the scree is 8.0m from the slits what is the distance between m = 0 and m=1 bright fringes?
answer is 10 cm

Homework Equations


d=m*lambda*L/y (for the short cute..for small angles)




The Attempt at a Solution


at m=0 d=0

at m=1
d=1*(500*10^-9)(8.0 m)/(2.0*10^-5) = 0.2m

so I am getting double...but I can't find a reason t multiply it by 1/2 ...

hmm
please help!

also, do i alway use m for bright fringe and (m+1/2) for dark...?
 
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I figured out there was a mistake on the answer sheet and the answer is 20 cm


haha thanks anyways
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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