Do derivatives belong to unique functions?

In summary, the conversation discusses the need to show that the function f(x)=cexp(-cx) is the only solution to a given equation and how to prove that functions have unique derivatives. The conversation also mentions the mean value theorem and its implications for proving that two functions with the same derivative differ only by a constant. It is also mentioned that this logic may still hold even if a certain property of a function is only known to be right continuous.
  • #1
rhuelu
17
0
I need to show that f(x)=cexp(-cx) is the only solution to c-[integral from 0 to x](f(x)) = f(x). Is this trivial? If not how would you suggest I go about showing that functions have unique derivatives (after taking into account constants). Thanks in advance for suggestions!
 
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  • #2
Is that equation really

[tex]f(x) = c - \int_0^x f(t) \, dt?[/tex]

Because f(x)=cexp(-cx) isn't a solution to this for all c.
 
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  • #3
the integral should be multiplied by c as well. This is actually a stats problem...the entire question is to show when the hazard/failure rate is constant -> c=f(x) / (1-F(x)) where f=pdf, F=cdf. Its obvious that f(x)=cexp(-cx) is a solution to this. I just don't know how to show its the only solution.
 
  • #4
The fact that "derivatives belong to unique functions" or, more correctly, that if f(x) and g(x) have the same derivative then f(x) and g(x) differ at most by a constant, is given in most calculus books and follows from the mean value theorem:

Lemma: Suppose f(x) is continuous on [a, b], is differentiable on (a, b), and f'(x)= 0 for all x in (a, b). Then f(x)= C (f(x) is a constant) for all x in (a,b).

Let x be any point in (a, b). By the mean value theorem, (f(x)- f(a))/(x- a)= f '(c) for some c between a and x. Since f'= 0 between a and b, f'(0)= 0 from which it follows that f(x)- f(a)= 0 or f(x)= f(a). That is, f(x) is equal to the number f(a) for all x between a and b and so f(x) is a constant there.

Theorem: If f(x) and g(x) are both continuous on [a, b], differentiable on (a, b), and f'(x)= g'(x) for all x in (a, b), then f(x)= g(x)+ C, a constant.

Let H(x)= f(x)- g(x). Then H(x) is continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a, b). Further, for all x in (a, b), H'(x)= f'(x)- g'(x)= 0 because f'(x)= g'(x). By the lemma, H(x)= f(x)+ g(x)= C for some number C. Then f(x)= g(x)+ C.
 
  • #5
thanks...that makes sense. Do you think this logic still holds if we only know that F(x) is right continuous? This is one of the properties of a cdf.
 

FAQ: Do derivatives belong to unique functions?

What are derivatives?

Derivatives are mathematical tools used to calculate the rate of change of a function. They can be thought of as the slope of a tangent line to a point on a curve.

Do all functions have derivatives?

No, not all functions have derivatives. For a function to have a derivative, it must be continuous and differentiable at all points in its domain.

Can a function have more than one derivative?

Yes, a function can have multiple derivatives. The first derivative is the rate of change of the function, the second derivative is the rate of change of the first derivative, and so on.

Are derivatives unique to a function?

Yes, derivatives are unique to a function. Each function has its own set of derivatives, and no two functions can have the exact same derivatives.

What is the importance of derivatives in science?

Derivatives are important in science because they can be used to analyze and model real-world phenomena, such as the rate of change of a chemical reaction, the velocity of an object, or the growth rate of a population. They also have applications in physics, economics, and engineering.

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