- #1
thegreenlaser
- 525
- 16
We've done a little bit on existence/uniqueness of solutions, and there's one thing that's a little confusing to me. We have a theorem which (paraphrased) says that if you have a linear ODE with an initial value problem, then a solution exists on the largest open interval containing t0 on which the coefficient functions are continuous. (t being the independent variable). Now, say I'm modelling something with this equation:
[tex]\frac{d^2 y}{dt^2} + \frac{1}{t(t-4)}\cdot \frac{dy}{dt} + t^2 y = e^t[/tex]
and say I know that y(2) = y0 and y'(2) = y'0. (so t0 = 2)
Then, the coefficient functions are all continuous except for at t=0 and t=4. Thus, I know a unique solution to my initial value problem exists on the interval 0 < t < 4, since t0 = 2 lies on that interval. So, my question is, does this mean that my solution might be useless everywhere else? Does this mean I might get a function that is accurate on the interval 0 < t < 4 but is garbage or undefined everywhere else? I guess I'm just a little unsure what "having a solution on that interval" means.
[tex]\frac{d^2 y}{dt^2} + \frac{1}{t(t-4)}\cdot \frac{dy}{dt} + t^2 y = e^t[/tex]
and say I know that y(2) = y0 and y'(2) = y'0. (so t0 = 2)
Then, the coefficient functions are all continuous except for at t=0 and t=4. Thus, I know a unique solution to my initial value problem exists on the interval 0 < t < 4, since t0 = 2 lies on that interval. So, my question is, does this mean that my solution might be useless everywhere else? Does this mean I might get a function that is accurate on the interval 0 < t < 4 but is garbage or undefined everywhere else? I guess I'm just a little unsure what "having a solution on that interval" means.