- #1
Heimisson
- 44
- 0
I was wondering if this is correct:
[tex]\phi[/tex](k-a)=[tex]\phi[/tex](k)-[tex]\phi[/tex](a)
Where k=p/h (h bar that is) and a is some constant and [tex]\phi[/tex] is the Fourier transform of a wave function (momentum function).
I know that if I had some real formula for [tex]\phi[/tex] I could just test this but the problem isn't like that.
I fairly recently started studying quantum mechanics so I'm still in that stage of having a bit of trouble connecting the physics and mathematics.
thanks
[tex]\phi[/tex](k-a)=[tex]\phi[/tex](k)-[tex]\phi[/tex](a)
Where k=p/h (h bar that is) and a is some constant and [tex]\phi[/tex] is the Fourier transform of a wave function (momentum function).
I know that if I had some real formula for [tex]\phi[/tex] I could just test this but the problem isn't like that.
I fairly recently started studying quantum mechanics so I'm still in that stage of having a bit of trouble connecting the physics and mathematics.
thanks