Does anyone know how to find radius of convergence for sin x and e^x

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To find the radius of convergence for sin(x) and e^x, the ratio test is applied to the coefficients of their Taylor series. The limit of the ratio of consecutive terms approaches zero, indicating that the radius of convergence is from negative infinity to positive infinity for both functions. There was confusion regarding the application of the ratio test, particularly with the expression used for e^x. Clarification was provided that the general term of the series should be used, leading to the correct conclusion about convergence. Overall, the discussion emphasized the importance of correctly applying the ratio test to Taylor series coefficients.
blursotong
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[sloved]Does anyone know how to find radius of convergence for sin x and e^x

We know that to find radius of convergence we use ratio test (ie lim {a_n+1} /{a_n})
Can this method be used for sin x and e^x? ( whose radius of convergence is -infinity and infinity)
if radius of convergence is -infinity<x< infinity right? it means when we use ratio test the result is zero?

but we see for e^x,
i get |e| when using ratio test, which implies that it diverge?

Im confused. Can anyone can help?
thanks.
 
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You are very confused. You have to use the ratio test on the coefficients of the Taylor series for e^x and sin(x). How do you get |e| for e^x?
 
cause i use lim (e^(n+1)/ e^(n)) and i got e?
do you mean i use the coefficient of taylor series for e^x = 1 + x + (x^2)/2 + ...
then e^(x+1) = 1 + (x+1) + (x+1)^2/2 +...
then divide ??
 
blursotong said:
cause i use lim (e^(n+1)/ e^(n)) and i got e?
do you mean i use the coefficient of taylor series for e^x = 1 + x + (x^2)/2 + ...
then e^(x+1) = 1 + (x+1) + (x+1)^2/2 +...
then divide ??

No, use the general term in whatever series you're investigating. For ex, the Maclaurin series is
\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}
 
wow..thats a great hint.
so its lim of [ {(x+1)^n /(n+1)!} * {(n!)/(x)^n} ] which gives lim {x/ (n+1} and when n tends to infinity the limit becomes zero ...so the radius of convergence is - infinity to + infinity??
 
blursotong said:
wow..thats a great hint.
so its lim of [ {(x+1)^n /(n+1)!} * {(n!)/(x)^n} ] which gives lim {x/ (n+1} and when n tends to infinity the limit becomes zero ...so the radius of convergence is - infinity to + infinity??

That's it. If you meant to write x^(n+1) in the numerator instead of (x+1)^n.
 
opps..haha..yup..
thanks a lot for your help!
anw, can you help me in another multiple integration question too?
no one replied yet=(
 

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