- #1
Math_Frank
- 27
- 0
Homework Statement
Given the odd integral
[tex]\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx[/tex] How do I prove that
f(x) -> 0 for [tex]x \to \infty[/tex]??
The Attempt at a Solution
Is it? For the above to be true, then there exist an [tex]\epsilon > 0[/tex] such that
[tex]|\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx-0| \leq \epsilon[/tex]?
I am stuck here!
Am I going the right way?
Sincerely
Frank