- #1
Sundown444
- 179
- 7
Say we have the moment of inertia of any object. If we removed the radius squared part of the moment of inertia and just leave mass, would heavier, further-from-the-axis mass on one end of the object be as easy to rotate as the lighter mass, maybe closer-to-the-axis of rotation on the other end?
Another question: If moment of inertia is mass times radius squared, counting out the other shapes' formulas, does the radius squared part apply just to one end of the object in question or to all sides of the object?
I hope you all understand what I mean by the first question.
Another question: If moment of inertia is mass times radius squared, counting out the other shapes' formulas, does the radius squared part apply just to one end of the object in question or to all sides of the object?
I hope you all understand what I mean by the first question.