- #1
jpas
- 45
- 0
Suppose you have a tube of moving water where bernoulli´s equation can be apllied and the water is at the same elevation all over the tube. Consider two points, 1 and 2. We have :
[tex]p_1 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_1)^2=p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2)^2[/tex]
On different inertial referentials the velocities would be different, therefore, the pressures would also be different, which is absurd. For example, if on referential S, [tex]v_1=0[/tex],
[tex]p_1=p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2)^2[/tex]
[tex]p_1\succ p_2[/tex]
But on referential [tex] R [/tex] in which [tex]v_2=0 [/tex]
[tex]p_2\succ p_1[/tex]
by the same reasoning.
Can anybody explain the paradox? Doesn´t this collide with the relativity principle which states that the laws of physics must be equal to inertial obervers?
[tex]p_1 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_1)^2=p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2)^2[/tex]
On different inertial referentials the velocities would be different, therefore, the pressures would also be different, which is absurd. For example, if on referential S, [tex]v_1=0[/tex],
[tex]p_1=p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2)^2[/tex]
[tex]p_1\succ p_2[/tex]
But on referential [tex] R [/tex] in which [tex]v_2=0 [/tex]
[tex]p_2\succ p_1[/tex]
by the same reasoning.
Can anybody explain the paradox? Doesn´t this collide with the relativity principle which states that the laws of physics must be equal to inertial obervers?