- #1
xalvyn
- 17
- 0
hi...
was wondering, does the converse of the mean value theorem hold?
that is, given any function f(x), and a tangent to the graph of y = f(x) at any point, can we always construct two points on the graph (with the tangent lying between) such that the line joining them is parallel to the tangent?
thanks to anyone who can share some insight..
was wondering, does the converse of the mean value theorem hold?
that is, given any function f(x), and a tangent to the graph of y = f(x) at any point, can we always construct two points on the graph (with the tangent lying between) such that the line joining them is parallel to the tangent?
thanks to anyone who can share some insight..