- #1
archaic
- 688
- 214
Would this ##f'(x)>g'(x)\,\forall x\in [a,\infty)\text{ and }f,\,g\underset{\infty}{\to}0\Rightarrow \lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)/g(x)=0## hold if ##\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}\neq c##?