Does this go to 0 for large enough x?

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  • Thread starter ChrisVer
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In summary, the paper argues that the exponential function can go to infinity, even though the rule-of-thumb you were taught is incorrect.
  • #1
ChrisVer
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I have one question... In general I always thought that the exponential function was "dying" out faster than any other polynomial function, such that:
[itex]e^{-x} x^a \rightarrow 0[/itex] for [itex]x \rightarrow \infty[/itex].
[eg this is was used quiet commonly and so I got it as a rule-of-thumb, when deriving wavefunctions for a simple example for the Hydrogen atom]

However recently I read in a paper that this is not true, and as an illustration of how can that be, they logarithm-ized the function like:
[itex]\ln (e^{-x} x^n) = -x + n \ln x[/itex] which goes to infinity for [itex] x,n\rightarrow \infty[/itex].
This I read in here:
http://arxiv.org/pdf/1108.4270v5.pdf
in Sec4 (the new paragraph after Eq4.1)

This has confused me, can someone shred some light?
 
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  • #2
##n## is variable. In your example, ##a## is fixed.
 
  • #3
well even if [itex]n[/itex] was not a variable, then the quantity I wrote [itex]-x + n \ln x[/itex] (fixed n), is not really going to zero for large x...

oops sorry... you want the logarithm to go to infinity.
 
  • #4
ChrisVer said:
they logarithm-ized the function like:
[itex]\ln (e^{-x} x^n) = -x + n \ln x[/itex] which goes to infinity for [itex] x,n\rightarrow \infty[/itex].
This I read in here:
http://arxiv.org/pdf/1108.4270v5.pdf
in Sec4 (the new paragraph after Eq4.1)

which is on page 10 of the PDF.

Your rule-of-thumb is correct about limits involving single variables.

However, there is a distinction between limits taken with respect to one variable and limits taken with respect to two variables.

##\lim_{s\rightarrow \infty} g(s) ## is defined differently than ##\lim_{s\rightarrow\infty,\ n\rightarrow\infty} g(s,n)##.

(The wording in the paper is "when both ##n## and ##s## go to ##\infty##".)

There is a further distinction between the definition of a "double limit" ##\lim_{s\rightarrow\infty,\ n\rightarrow\infty} g(s,n)## and the definition of the two "iterated limits":
##\lim_{s\rightarrow\infty}( \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} g(s,n))##
and
##\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}( \lim_{s\rightarrow\infty} g(s,n))##.
 
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  • #5
The first limit can be evaluated by repeated application of de L'Hospital's rule,
$$\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{x^{a}}{\exp x}=\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{a x^{a-1}}{\exp x}=\ldots = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{a(a-1) \ldots (a-n+1) x^{a-n}}{\exp x}=0,$$
where I made ##n>a-1##.
 
  • #6
vanhees71 said:
where I made ##n>a-1##.

L'hospitals rule doesn't apply once the numerator becomes constant, so we should stop when that happens.
 
  • #7
If ##a \in \mathbb{N}## then for ##n=a## the numerator becomes constant, and then the limit is also shown to be 0. So there's nothing wrong arguing with de L'Hospital in all cases.
 
  • #8
vanhees71 said:
So there's nothing wrong arguing with de L'Hospital in all cases.

I'm just saying L'Hospital's rule does not apply to a case like ##lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{6}{f(x)}## since L'Hospital's rule only applies when both the numerator and denominator both have a limit of zero or both have infinite limits. Once you get a constant like 6 in the numerator, you have to use a different justification for finding the limit.

So we shouldn't write a chain of equalities that implies L'Hospital's rule is being applied to the case where the numerator is constant because it is not, in general, true that ##lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)} =lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{f"(x)}{g"(x)} = ... = lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{\frac{d^n}{dx} f(x)}{\frac{d^n}{dx}g(x)} ##, running through an arbitary number ##n## of differentiations.
 
  • #9
Of course it works only for limits of the type "##0/0##" or ##\infty/\infty##. Perhaps I was not strict enough in my formulation. I did not mean to use it arbitrarily many times of course but only as long as it is applicable.
 

FAQ: Does this go to 0 for large enough x?

1. Does the function approach 0 as x gets larger?

It depends on the specific function and its behavior. Some functions may approach 0 as x gets larger, while others may approach a different value or even diverge to infinity.

2. How do I determine if a function goes to 0 for large enough x?

One way to determine this is by looking at the limit of the function as x approaches infinity. If the limit is 0, then the function will go to 0 for large enough x. However, this is not always the case and further analysis of the function may be necessary.

3. Can a function approach 0 for large enough x but never actually reach it?

Yes, this is possible. A function may approach 0 as x gets larger but never actually reach 0. This is known as an asymptote and can be seen in functions such as y = 1/x, where the graph approaches the x-axis but never touches it.

4. Is it possible for a function to approach a value other than 0 for large enough x?

Yes, this is possible. A function may approach any value as x gets larger, depending on its behavior. For example, the function y = x^2 will approach infinity as x gets larger.

5. How does the behavior of a function near 0 affect its behavior for large enough x?

The behavior of a function near 0 does not necessarily determine its behavior for large enough x. A function can have different behavior near 0 and for large enough x. It is important to analyze the function's behavior for different values of x to understand its overall behavior.

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