- #1
MotoMike
- 30
- 2
In a recent discussion the output of a single-phase permanent magnet alternator was the topic. The alternator has a 6-pole rotor and 8 coils in series wound on 4 cores. Output is taken from the opposite ends of the series wound stator.
Another fellow made the statement that with the alternator spinning; the two stator outputs did not have voltage across them until connected to a load. He explained that it is only “potential” voltage and not true voltage. Though I suspect we may be into semantics, it did not seem right to me. Further discussion has not changed his mind. He disputed my contention that voltage is the potential that causes current to flow. I said that the rotating magnetic field passing through the conductors of the coil induced voltage across the windings of the stator and that this voltage was present weather the stator was loaded or not. I think his reasoning is based on Ohms law where E=IxR and since with no path for current, zero x R =0. But I am not sure why he feels this way. He suggested a physics professor could clear it up for me. Sadly I don’t know a physics professor.
My training (20 years Navy Sonar Tech) and 15 years as an amateur radio enthusiast leads me to believe that there are other ways to define voltage.
My thought was that (Please excuse my ignorance here as it becomes obvious) we get voltage by separating electrons from protons. In this case by passing magnetic lines of flux through the conductors in the stator. So we have a surplus of electrons moved to one stator output terminal and a deficit on the other. That it took work to separate them and they hold the potential to do work as they are naturally drawn towards one another. (I understand that with an alternator that condition will change during the next half cycle but for simplicity sake am considering a snap shot.) This difference of potential or charge is what I have come to know as voltage. And that it exists even in the absence of a current path for the electrons to follow.
I appreciate any help on this you can give.
Thanks,
Mike
Another fellow made the statement that with the alternator spinning; the two stator outputs did not have voltage across them until connected to a load. He explained that it is only “potential” voltage and not true voltage. Though I suspect we may be into semantics, it did not seem right to me. Further discussion has not changed his mind. He disputed my contention that voltage is the potential that causes current to flow. I said that the rotating magnetic field passing through the conductors of the coil induced voltage across the windings of the stator and that this voltage was present weather the stator was loaded or not. I think his reasoning is based on Ohms law where E=IxR and since with no path for current, zero x R =0. But I am not sure why he feels this way. He suggested a physics professor could clear it up for me. Sadly I don’t know a physics professor.
My training (20 years Navy Sonar Tech) and 15 years as an amateur radio enthusiast leads me to believe that there are other ways to define voltage.
My thought was that (Please excuse my ignorance here as it becomes obvious) we get voltage by separating electrons from protons. In this case by passing magnetic lines of flux through the conductors in the stator. So we have a surplus of electrons moved to one stator output terminal and a deficit on the other. That it took work to separate them and they hold the potential to do work as they are naturally drawn towards one another. (I understand that with an alternator that condition will change during the next half cycle but for simplicity sake am considering a snap shot.) This difference of potential or charge is what I have come to know as voltage. And that it exists even in the absence of a current path for the electrons to follow.
I appreciate any help on this you can give.
Thanks,
Mike