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Pioneer1
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In a recent post here about the Cavendish experiment several people suggested that Cavendish measured G. I disagree with this. I believe that the experimental evidence does not support the claim that Cavendish observed the Newtonian force. What better way to prove this than by duplicating the experiment
Cavendish experiment itself is the quintessential garage experiment that amateurs can duplicate easily. Cavendish himself was an amateur and he conducted his experiment in [link deleted by Doc Al] his backyard.
I started a social network called [link deleted by Doc Al] for people who are interested in the Cavendish experiment. I just created it and I don’t yet know how it works. But if you like physics and tinkering then the Cavendish experiment is really a good place to start.
There are two tests that I want to try in the experiment to prove that Cavendish did not observe the Newtonian force. I welcome comments from readers of Physics forums.
1. Cavendish experiment assumes an unphysical equilibrium between the linear restoring force of the torsion wire and the inverse square of the Newtonian force.
We know from elemenary physics that a linear force could never balance an inverse square force. But when you look at the http://www.physics.sfsu.edu/~ggrist/490/Cavrpt/cavrpt.html" of the Cavendish experiment you would see that the experiment assumes this unphysical equilibrium when the linear restoring force is equated to the inverse square force. I explained here [link deleted by Doc Al] in detail why this equilibrium will never happen. Please let me know what you think. Do you think a linear force can balance an inverse square force? To me this violates elementary laws of physics. And is this a good proof that Cavendish did not measure G?
2. I divide the second experiment in two. First I compute the constant G from an experiment where both the attracting weights W and the attracted balls h attached to the pendulum are present. Call this G1.
In the second experiment I remove the attracted balls h and leave only the attracting weight W. (I keep moment of inertia of the pendulum the same.) Since the equations are independent of h I will again be able to compute a value for G. Call this G2. I claim that
G1 = G2.
The fact that I was able to compute the value of G in an experiment where attracted balls were not present will prove that Cavendish computed the density of the Earth from the constants of the pendulum. If we could compute G without the attracted mass we could no longer claim that we have measured “the attraction between two masses W and h.” The mass h is not there. This is a definite proof that Cavendish experiment never measured and could not have measured the Newtonian force. What do you think?
I would really appreciate comments on these tests. Thanks again. Please join the [link deleted by Doc Al] and let’s duplicate this beautiful experiment and show that the Cavendish never measured the Newtonian occult.
Cavendish experiment itself is the quintessential garage experiment that amateurs can duplicate easily. Cavendish himself was an amateur and he conducted his experiment in [link deleted by Doc Al] his backyard.
I started a social network called [link deleted by Doc Al] for people who are interested in the Cavendish experiment. I just created it and I don’t yet know how it works. But if you like physics and tinkering then the Cavendish experiment is really a good place to start.
There are two tests that I want to try in the experiment to prove that Cavendish did not observe the Newtonian force. I welcome comments from readers of Physics forums.
1. Cavendish experiment assumes an unphysical equilibrium between the linear restoring force of the torsion wire and the inverse square of the Newtonian force.
We know from elemenary physics that a linear force could never balance an inverse square force. But when you look at the http://www.physics.sfsu.edu/~ggrist/490/Cavrpt/cavrpt.html" of the Cavendish experiment you would see that the experiment assumes this unphysical equilibrium when the linear restoring force is equated to the inverse square force. I explained here [link deleted by Doc Al] in detail why this equilibrium will never happen. Please let me know what you think. Do you think a linear force can balance an inverse square force? To me this violates elementary laws of physics. And is this a good proof that Cavendish did not measure G?
2. I divide the second experiment in two. First I compute the constant G from an experiment where both the attracting weights W and the attracted balls h attached to the pendulum are present. Call this G1.
In the second experiment I remove the attracted balls h and leave only the attracting weight W. (I keep moment of inertia of the pendulum the same.) Since the equations are independent of h I will again be able to compute a value for G. Call this G2. I claim that
G1 = G2.
The fact that I was able to compute the value of G in an experiment where attracted balls were not present will prove that Cavendish computed the density of the Earth from the constants of the pendulum. If we could compute G without the attracted mass we could no longer claim that we have measured “the attraction between two masses W and h.” The mass h is not there. This is a definite proof that Cavendish experiment never measured and could not have measured the Newtonian force. What do you think?
I would really appreciate comments on these tests. Thanks again. Please join the [link deleted by Doc Al] and let’s duplicate this beautiful experiment and show that the Cavendish never measured the Newtonian occult.
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