- #1
Dustinsfl
- 2,281
- 5
Given
\[
f(x) = \lambda\int_0^1xy^2f(y)dy
\]
I am trying to determine the eigenvalues and eigenfunction. I know that the \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) are the eigenvalues.
We can write \(f(x) = xA\) and \(A = \lambda\int_0^1y^2f(y)dy\).
\[
A\Bigg(1 - \lambda\int_0^1y^3dy\Bigg) = 0\quad (*)
\]
So is the eigenvalue only one value which would be what I get when I solve for 1 over lambda?
\[
\frac{1}{\lambda} = \frac{1}{4}
\]
Is \((*)\) the eigenfunction? If not, how do I find the eigenfunction?
\[
f(x) = \lambda\int_0^1xy^2f(y)dy
\]
I am trying to determine the eigenvalues and eigenfunction. I know that the \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) are the eigenvalues.
We can write \(f(x) = xA\) and \(A = \lambda\int_0^1y^2f(y)dy\).
\[
A\Bigg(1 - \lambda\int_0^1y^3dy\Bigg) = 0\quad (*)
\]
So is the eigenvalue only one value which would be what I get when I solve for 1 over lambda?
\[
\frac{1}{\lambda} = \frac{1}{4}
\]
Is \((*)\) the eigenfunction? If not, how do I find the eigenfunction?