- #1
catcherintherye
- 48
- 0
Then the proof goes on to consider coefficient of x viz a1=boc1 + b1co, and we know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp so boc1=0modp...
...2 questions why is b1co necessarily =0modp ? and secondly why does it follow that boc1=0modp? ...
... i mean sure we know the sum b1co + boc1 =0modp but surely this doesn't imply b1co=0modp e.g 9=0mod3 but 9=5+4 and it is not true 5=0mod3
...2 questions why is b1co necessarily =0modp ? and secondly why does it follow that boc1=0modp? ...
... i mean sure we know the sum b1co + boc1 =0modp but surely this doesn't imply b1co=0modp e.g 9=0mod3 but 9=5+4 and it is not true 5=0mod3
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