- #36
aliens123
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If this is the case, then why isn't the Lorentz transformation given in this link:PeterDonis said:The correct statements of what the Lorentz transformation does are:
$$(E_G)_\mu \mapsto (E_G)'_\mu$$
$$(E_H)_\mu \mapsto (E_H)'_\mu$$
And, for completeness:
$$F_{\mu \nu} \mapsto F'_{\mu \nu}$$
$$(v_G)^\nu \mapsto (v_G)'^\nu$$
$$(v_H)^\nu \mapsto (v_H)'^\nu$$
In other words: a Lorentz transformation doesn't change which object you are dealing with. It just transforms the components of that object from one frame to another. But going from ##E_G## to ##E_H## changes which object you are dealing with. That is simply a different thing from a Lorentz transformation.
https://webhome.phy.duke.edu/~rgb/Class/phy319/phy319/node136.html
Related by a "simple" Lorentz transformation? That is, ##(E_G)_\mu \mapsto (E_G)'_\mu##
Is just
$$(E_G)_\mu = (E_G)'_\alpha \Lambda_{\mu}^{\ \ \alpha}$$
But this is not what the Lorentz transformation given in the link is. Or, in other words, what should we call
$$F_{\mu 0} \mapsto F'_{\mu 0}$$
This is what I was calling the "Lorentz transformation." But this is equivalent to
$$(E_G)_\mu \mapsto (E_H)'_\mu$$
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