- #1
Wannabeagenius
- 91
- 0
Hi Folks,
I understand that a changing magnetic field induces an electric field and a changing electric field induces a magnetic field. I also understand that the greater the time rate of change of one, the greater is the other.
Now in free space, the electric and magnetic field of a wave are in phase. However, as I see it, at the peak of the sign wave of the electric field, the electric field time rate of change is zero. So it seems like this should coincide with a zero magnetic field but since they are in phase, the magnetic field is also at a peak.
It seems like they should have a phase difference of plus or minus pi/2.
What am I missing here?
Thank you,
Bob
I understand that a changing magnetic field induces an electric field and a changing electric field induces a magnetic field. I also understand that the greater the time rate of change of one, the greater is the other.
Now in free space, the electric and magnetic field of a wave are in phase. However, as I see it, at the peak of the sign wave of the electric field, the electric field time rate of change is zero. So it seems like this should coincide with a zero magnetic field but since they are in phase, the magnetic field is also at a peak.
It seems like they should have a phase difference of plus or minus pi/2.
What am I missing here?
Thank you,
Bob