- #1
binbagsss
- 1,261
- 11
Homework Statement
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please see attached.
b) The solution seems a bit vague is the idea here, what this comment is saying, that since this is a simple zero the form of ##lim_{z\to a} f_a(z) (z-a)=0## since, crudely, it is of the form ##\frac{0.0}{0}##.
Compared to the point ##z=-a## where I have ##lim_{z \to -a} f_a(z) (z+a) = \frac{-2\psi'(a).0}{0}##, here can you immediately conclude that the limit is not zero so it is not a removable singularity, or does further work need to be done such as l'hopitals rules or computer the Fourier coefficients via the contour integral and show the laurent series has only non-zero positive coneffiecients or something along those lines.i.e Crudely speaking, in general can you say the zeros are of the same order on the numerator and denominator (at ##z=-a## compared to ##z=a##) and so 'cancel' so you can generally rule out a removable singularity in this case or not?
c) Is the idea here simply that the holomorphic part of a laurent series of a complex function about ##z=c## ##\to 0## as ##z\to c##?
Homework Equations
see above.
The Attempt at a Solution
[/B]
see above.