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Karl86 said:The answer is given: it is ##-\frac{2\lambda^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \log(|r_2-r_1|)##. What I am asked is to prove that it can be written like that. How is it you got that expression naively?
You start with one "infinite" wire. You bring a unit of line charge in from "infinity" - and don't worry that the potential is infinite at infinity - and you have the energy to create the configuration, per unit length of the second wire.
But, now it seems very clear, if you released that unit line charge, it has infinite potential energy. So, there is no finite answer.
If, however, you consider the wire long but finite, then eventually the logarithmic potential will cease to hold. The PE of the unit length of charge is, therefore, finite for any finite wire, but tends to infinity for an infinite wire, so the problem is not well-defined.