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mopit_011
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- TL;DR Summary
- We can measure frictional forces. By placing the body on a horizontal surface where it experiences a frictional force, we could attach a spring and pull the body with just the right force so that it moves at constant velocity. Why would the body begin moving when the frictional force becomes equivalent to the applied force by the spring?
The following passage is from Halliday Resnick Krane in Chapter 3 which is about dynamics in one dimension.
"We can measure frictional forces. By placing the body on a horizontal surface where it experiences a frictional force, we could attach a spring and pull the body with just the right force so that it moves at constant velocity."
I had assumed that the passage was talking about static frictional force and do not understand why when the frictional force is equal to the applied spring force, the body would move at constant velocity. Wouldn't the net force still be 0 Newtons on the body meaning that it does not accelerate? Thank you so much!
"We can measure frictional forces. By placing the body on a horizontal surface where it experiences a frictional force, we could attach a spring and pull the body with just the right force so that it moves at constant velocity."
I had assumed that the passage was talking about static frictional force and do not understand why when the frictional force is equal to the applied spring force, the body would move at constant velocity. Wouldn't the net force still be 0 Newtons on the body meaning that it does not accelerate? Thank you so much!