- #1
Math Amateur
Gold Member
MHB
- 3,998
- 48
I am reading Joseph J. Rotman's book: A First Course in Abstract Algebra with Applications (Third Edition) ...
I am currently focused on Section 3.5 From Numbers to Polynomials ...
I need help with Example 3.76 ... ... the example concerns Euclidean rings and their defining characteristics so I am including the definition of a Euclidean ring in the relevant text shown below ... ...
The relevant text from Rotman's book is as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/4649
View attachment 4648
I am trying to understand Example 3.76 which indicates that every field is a Euclidean ring ... ...
I can see that point (i) of the definition is satisfied with \(\displaystyle \partial\) set identically to zero ...... BUT ... I fail to understand what Rotman is saying about how point (ii) is satisfied ... ...
In order for (ii) to be satisfied, for every \(\displaystyle g \in R\) and every \(\displaystyle f \in R^{\times}\) we have to find \(\displaystyle q, r \in R\) such that:
\(\displaystyle g = qf + r\) ... ... ... (*)
... BUT ...
Rotman says to set \(\displaystyle q = f^{-1}\) and \(\displaystyle r = 0\)
but if we do this (*) above becomes
\(\displaystyle g = f f^{-1} + 0 = 1\) ...
but \(\displaystyle g\) may be any element of \(\displaystyle R\) ... ?Can someone please explain what is going on ... that is, what Rotman means in this example ...
Hope someone can help ...
Peter
I am currently focused on Section 3.5 From Numbers to Polynomials ...
I need help with Example 3.76 ... ... the example concerns Euclidean rings and their defining characteristics so I am including the definition of a Euclidean ring in the relevant text shown below ... ...
The relevant text from Rotman's book is as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/4649
View attachment 4648
I am trying to understand Example 3.76 which indicates that every field is a Euclidean ring ... ...
I can see that point (i) of the definition is satisfied with \(\displaystyle \partial\) set identically to zero ...... BUT ... I fail to understand what Rotman is saying about how point (ii) is satisfied ... ...
In order for (ii) to be satisfied, for every \(\displaystyle g \in R\) and every \(\displaystyle f \in R^{\times}\) we have to find \(\displaystyle q, r \in R\) such that:
\(\displaystyle g = qf + r\) ... ... ... (*)
... BUT ...
Rotman says to set \(\displaystyle q = f^{-1}\) and \(\displaystyle r = 0\)
but if we do this (*) above becomes
\(\displaystyle g = f f^{-1} + 0 = 1\) ...
but \(\displaystyle g\) may be any element of \(\displaystyle R\) ... ?Can someone please explain what is going on ... that is, what Rotman means in this example ...
Hope someone can help ...
Peter
Last edited: