Euler-Lagrange equation (EOM) solutions - hairy lagrangian

In summary, the conversation discusses the process of solving a problem related to relativistic strings, using Zwiebach Chapter 6 as a reference. The equation of motion is derived and the Lagrangian is presented as $\frac{\cos^3 \theta}{z^5} \sqrt{1 + z^2 \theta'^2}$. The goal is to show that $\theta = \arcsin(z)$, but the equation becomes messy when the Lagrangian is substituted. The conversation also mentions the use of ansatzing and the principle of least action, and suggests using computational methods such as Maple or Mathematica to solve the problem.
  • #1
Emil
8
0
I'm going through Zwiebach Chapter 6 on relativistic strings to try to solve a
similar problem. I got all the way to my equation of motion
\begin{eqnarray*}
\delta S & = & [ p' \delta \theta]_{z 0}^{z 1} + \int_{z 0}^{z 1} d z \left(
p - \frac{\partial ( p')}{\partial z} \right) \delta \theta\\
& & \\
\Longrightarrow p - \frac{\partial ( p')}{\partial z} & = & 0\\
& & \\
{where} : & & \\
p & = & \frac{\partial L ( z, \theta, \theta')}{\partial \theta}\\
p' & = & \frac{\partial L ( z, \theta, \theta')}{\partial \theta'}
\end{eqnarray*}
The Lagrangian I have is \begin{array}{lll}
L ( z, \theta, \theta') & = & \frac{\cos^3 \theta}{z^5} \sqrt{1 + z^2
\theta'^2}
\end{array}, and I know that this equation is the Euler Lagrange equation.\begin{eqnarray*}
\frac{\partial L}{\partial \theta} - \frac{\partial}{\partial z} \left(
\frac{\partial L}{\partial \theta'} \right) & = & 0\\
& & \\
{where} : & & \\
\theta' ( z) & = & \frac{\partial \theta ( z)}{\partial z}\\
L ( z, \theta, \theta') & = & \frac{\cos^3 \theta}{z^5} \sqrt{1 + z^2
\theta'^2}
\end{eqnarray*}
Just putting the expression for L into the equation gives me a mess:
\begin{array}{lll}
\frac{- 3 \sin \theta \cos^2 \theta}{z^5} \sqrt{1 + z^2 \theta'^2} -
\frac{\sqrt{2} \theta'' ( 2 \theta'^2 z^2 + 3) \cos^3 \theta}{z^4 (
\theta'^2 z^2 + 2)^{3 / 2}} & = & 0
\end{array}
I don't think I'm supposed to brute force this. I know what I want is to show that
$$\theta = \arcsin ( z)$$ but I can't see how to get it. I'm thinking that there is something I'm missing about the equation of motion.
 
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  • #2
oh and here is a link to the same question I posted on stackexchange
 
  • #3
What is the meaning of that Lagrangian?
Or in other words, where in Zwiebach did you get it?
 
  • #4
Well I'm working in $$A d S_5 \times S^5$$
\begin{eqnarray*}
- d s^2 & = & g_{\alpha \beta}^{{induced}} d X^{\mu} d X_{\mu}\\
& & \\
& = & \{ G_{\mu \nu} \partial_{\alpha} X^{\mu} \partial_{\beta} X^{\nu} \}
d X^{\mu} d X_{\mu}\\
& & \\
& = & \frac{1}{z^2} ( - d t^2 + d \vec{x}^2 + d z^2) + d \theta + \cos^2
\theta d \Omega_3^2 + \sin^2 \theta d \psi^2
\end{eqnarray*}
\begin{eqnarray*}
{spacetime} {indicies} : & \mu, \nu & \{ d = 0 \ldots 9 \}\\
{world} {brane} {indicies} : & \alpha_1, \alpha_2, \alpha_3 &
\{ p = 0 \ldots 7 \}\\
{spatial} {indicies} {on} {brane} : & i, j & \{ p = 0
\ldots 7 \}\\
{spatial} {indicies} {normal} {to} {brane} : & a, b
& \{ ( p - 1) \ldots d \}\\
{generic} {index} {for} {transverse} {coordinates}
: & & I \longrightarrow ( i, a)
\end{eqnarray*}
and we have:
\begin{eqnarray*}
\mu = 0 & t & \\
1 & x^1 & \\
2 & x^2 & \\
3 & x^3 & \\
4 & z & \\
5 & \alpha 1 & \\
6 & \alpha 2 & \\
7 & \alpha 3 & \\
8 & \theta & \\
9 & \psi &
\end{eqnarray*}
working in the static gauge so instead of $\begin{array}{ll}
\mu, \nu & \{ d = 0 \ldots 9 \}
\end{array}$we have $$\mu = 0 \ldots 7$$. I do a lot of ansatzing
\begin{eqnarray*}
'' {string} {coordinate}'' & : & X^8 ( x_1 \ldots x_7) \Rightarrow
{ansatz} \Rightarrow X^8 \left( \not{t}, \not{\vec{x}}, z,
\not{\alpha_1}, \not{\alpha_2}, \not{\alpha_3} \right) = \theta \left(
\not{t}, \not{\vec{x}}, z, \not{\alpha_1}, \not{\alpha_2}, \not{\alpha_3}
\right) = \theta ( z)\\
& & X^9 ( x_1 \ldots x_7) \Rightarrow {ansatz} \Rightarrow X^9 \left(
\not{t}, \not{\vec{x}}, z, \not{\alpha_1}, \not{\alpha_2}, \not{\alpha_3}
\right) = \psi \left( \not{t}, \not{\vec{x}}, z, \not{\alpha_1},
\not{\alpha_2}, \not{\alpha_3} \right) = \psi ( z)\\
& & {ansatz} : \psi ( z) = 0
\end{eqnarray*}
\begin{eqnarray*}
g_{\alpha \beta}^{{induced}} & = & g_{{Emil}} + G_{8 8}
\partial_{\alpha} X^8 \partial_{\beta} X^8 + G_{99} \partial_{\alpha} X^9
\partial_{\beta} X^9\\
& & \\
& = & \left(\begin{array}{cccccccc}
G_{00} & 0 & & & & & & 0\\
0 & G_{11} & 0 & & & & & \\
& 0 & G_{22} & 0 & & & & \\
& & 0 & G_{33} & 0 & & & \\
& & & 0 & G_{44} + G_{88} \left( \frac{\partial \theta}{\partial z}
\right)^2 & 0 & & \\
& & & & 0 & G_{55} & 0 & \\
& & & & & 0 & G_{66} & 0\\
0 & & & & & & 0 & G_{77}
\end{array}\right)\\
& & \\
& = & \left(\begin{array}{cccccccc}
\frac{1}{x_4^2} & & & & & & \ldots & 0\\
& \frac{1}{x_4^2} & & & & & & \vdots\\
& & \frac{1}{x_4^2} & & & & & \\
& & & \frac{1}{x_4^2} & & & & \\
& & & & \frac{1}{x_4^2} + 1 \left( \frac{\partial \theta}{\partial z}
\right)^2 & & & \\
& & & & & \cos^2 x_8 & & \\
\vdots & & & & & & \cos^2 x_8 \sin^2 x_5 & \\
0 & \ldots & & & & & & \cos^2 x_8 \sin^2 x_5 \sin^2 x_6
\end{array}\right)
\end{eqnarray*}
where I know that
\begin{eqnarray*}
L & = & \det \sqrt{g_{\alpha \beta}^{{induced}}}\\
& & \\
L & = & \frac{\cos^3 \theta}{z^5} \sqrt{1 + z^2 \left( \frac{\partial
\theta}{\partial z} \right)^2} = L ( z, \theta, \theta')
\end{eqnarray*}The action ends up working as follows:
\begin{eqnarray*}
S & = & \int d x_4 L ( X^8 ( x_1 \ldots x_7), X^9 ( x_1 \ldots x_7))\\
& & \\
S & = & \int d z L ( \theta ( t \ldots \alpha_3), \psi ( t \ldots
\alpha_3))\\
& & \\
& \Rightarrow & {ansatz} !\\
& & \\
S & = & \int d z L ( \theta ( z), 0) = \int d z \frac{\cos^3 \theta}{z^5}
\sqrt{1 + z^2 \left( \frac{\partial \theta}{\partial z} \right)^2}
\end{eqnarray*}
where I want to apply the principle of least action.
 
  • #5
Sorry I don't think I can help..
However to check whether you did it right or wrong, I'd say to try and insert your solution to the Euler Lagrange equation you derived and check whether it's correct or not. In fact I don't see where the [itex] \sin ^2 x_5 \sin x_6 [/itex] coming from your [itex]det \sqrt{g_{ab}}[/itex] went...
you could as well try computational method?
 
  • #6
This could be done with maple or mathematica.
 
  • #7
Take another look at the second term of the "mess" ;-) .
 

FAQ: Euler-Lagrange equation (EOM) solutions - hairy lagrangian

1. What is the Euler-Lagrange equation (EOM)?

The Euler-Lagrange equation is a fundamental equation in classical mechanics that describes the motion of a system under the influence of a potential energy. It is a second-order differential equation that takes into account the kinetic and potential energies of the system.

2. What does it mean for a Lagrangian to be "hairy"?

A "hairy" Lagrangian refers to a Lagrangian that contains higher-order derivatives of the generalized coordinates. This can make the Euler-Lagrange equation more complex and difficult to solve.

3. How are EOM solutions related to the principle of least action?

The Euler-Lagrange equation is derived from the principle of least action, which states that the path taken by a system between two points in time is the one that minimizes the action, or the integral of the Lagrangian over time. Solving the EOM provides the path that satisfies this principle.

4. What is the significance of finding a solution to the EOM?

Finding a solution to the EOM allows us to determine the exact path that a system will take under given initial conditions. This is essential in understanding the behavior of physical systems and predicting their future states.

5. Can the EOM be solved for all systems?

No, the EOM can only be solved analytically for simple systems with known Lagrangians. For more complex systems, numerical methods or approximations may be necessary to find a solution.

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