- #1
Dustinsfl
- 2,281
- 5
\[
\int_0^1yy'dx
\]
where \(y(0) = 0\) and \(y(1) = 0\).
The first integral is
\[
f - y'\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'} = c.
\]
Using this, I get \(yy' - y'y = 0 = c\) so ofcourse \(y(0)\) and \(y(1)\) equal \(0\) then but is this correct?
It just seems odd.
\int_0^1yy'dx
\]
where \(y(0) = 0\) and \(y(1) = 0\).
The first integral is
\[
f - y'\frac{\partial f}{\partial y'} = c.
\]
Using this, I get \(yy' - y'y = 0 = c\) so ofcourse \(y(0)\) and \(y(1)\) equal \(0\) then but is this correct?
It just seems odd.