Euler's solution to the Basel problem

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Euler's solution to the Basel problem involves expressing sin(pi x)/(pi x) as an infinite product, which is zero at nonzero integers. He conjectured that this expression equals the product over n of (1 - x^2/n^2), leading to the identification of coefficients that ultimately yield the value of the sum of the inverse squares. The method can also be applied using cos(pi x), resulting in a similar product form with different zeroes. Both approaches confirm that the sum of the inverse squares of odd numbers relates to the Riemann zeta function, establishing that ζ(2) = π²/6. Euler's conjecture laid the groundwork for later rigorous proofs of this identity.
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Can someone find a good explanation of how Euler did it? I can't seem to find anything article or whatnot that carefully explains what he did to solve the problem. From what I can gather, he seems to follow a method of writing out sin(x) as an infinite series(taylor polynomial) and divides by x and from there I get lost in the mishmash. Why does he even choose to use sin(x) and not cos(x) or tan(x) for that matter?
 
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The function

sin(pi x)/(pi x)

is zero at the nonzero integers, so it should be equal to:

sin(pi x)/(pi x) = product over n of (1-x^2/n^2)

The right hand side is a product that converges and it is zero when x isa nonzero integer. The normalization is correct, because for x = 1 it is 1 while the limit for x to 1 of the left hand side is also 1. So, the above indentity looks correct (but you can't rigorously prove that, Euler only conjectured the identity).

The coefficent of x^2 of the left hand side is:

-pi^2/6

And from the right hand side it is minus the sum of 1/n^2 from n = 1 to infinity. To get an x^2 term, you need to take it from one factor of the infinite product, say the nth, and then you need to take the 1 from all other factors. You then get -1/n^2, and all n from 1 to infinity contribute.

Now, you can just as well do this using cos(pi x). The zeroes are at x = (n+1/2), so you would conjecture that:

cos(pi x) = Product over n of [1-x^2/(n+1/2)^2]

Normalization is correct as can be seen from putting x = 1 on bith sides. Extracting the coefficient of x^2 gives:

-pi^2/2 = -Sum over n from n= 0 to infinity of 1/(n+1/2)^2

You can rewrite this as:

sum over n 1/(2n+1)^2 = pi^2/8

You then use the following trick. If we put:

Zeta(2) = sum from n = 1 to infinity of 1/n^2

Then clearly the sum of the inverse squares of the even numbers only is:

sum from n = 1 to infinity of 1/(2n)^2 = 1/4 Zeta(2)

So, the sum over only the inverse squares if the odd numbers must be
3/4 Zeta(2). So we have:

pi^2/8 = 3/4 Zeta(2) -------->

Zeta(2) = pi^2/6.
 
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Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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