- #1
Math Amateur
Gold Member
MHB
- 3,998
- 48
Dummit and Foote open their section (part of section 10.5) on projective modules as follows:View attachment 2463D&F then deal with the issue of obtaining a homomorphism from D to M given a homomorphism from D to L and then move to the more problematic issue of obtaining a homomorphism from D to M given a homomorphism from D to N. (Strangely they refer to N as "the quotient N?). The relevant text reads as follows:
View attachment 2464
D&F then give an example ... and my question pertains to this example ... the example reads as follows:
View attachment 2465In this example, D&F make the following statement:
"Any homomorphism \(\displaystyle F\) of \(\displaystyle D\) into \(\displaystyle M = \mathbb{Z} \)must map \(\displaystyle D\) to \(\displaystyle 0\) (since \(\displaystyle D\) has no elements of order \(\displaystyle 2\))"
Can someone please explain why this statement is true?
I am aware that isomorphisms map elements of a given order onto elements of the same order, but here we are only dealing with a homomorphism.
Also \(\displaystyle 0\) does not have order \(\displaystyle 2\) anyway!
Can someone please clarify these issues?
Peter
View attachment 2464
D&F then give an example ... and my question pertains to this example ... the example reads as follows:
View attachment 2465In this example, D&F make the following statement:
"Any homomorphism \(\displaystyle F\) of \(\displaystyle D\) into \(\displaystyle M = \mathbb{Z} \)must map \(\displaystyle D\) to \(\displaystyle 0\) (since \(\displaystyle D\) has no elements of order \(\displaystyle 2\))"
Can someone please explain why this statement is true?
I am aware that isomorphisms map elements of a given order onto elements of the same order, but here we are only dealing with a homomorphism.
Also \(\displaystyle 0\) does not have order \(\displaystyle 2\) anyway!
Can someone please clarify these issues?
Peter