Exact Values of Trig Functions at 1/3pi and 1/6pi with Symmetry - Homework Help

In summary, using the symmetry of the graphs of sin, cos, and tan, and the identities cos(x)=sin(x+pi/2), sin(x)=sin(x+2pi), and sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1, the exact values of sin(-1/6pi), cos(5/3pi), and tan(4/3pi) can be found by manipulating the given values of sin(1/3pi) and cos(1/6pi) to match the desired angles.
  • #1
tomwilliam
145
2

Homework Statement


(In radians I assume) Using the exact values of sin, cos, tan of 1/3 pi and 1/6 pi, and the symmetry of the graphs of sin, cos and tan, find the exact values of sin(-1/6pi), cos (5/3pi) and tan(4/3pi).


Homework Equations


cos(x)=sin(x+pi/2)
sin(x) = sin(x+2pi)
sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1


The Attempt at a Solution



I have a little difficulty understanding what is required here. I have a list of trig functions but these don't seem to be here. I imagine the answer is some square root with a coefficient, but I'd like to understand it better. Can someone point me in the right direction without just giving me the answer? Thanks
 
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  • #2
Try the numbers as combination of π, for example to find tan(5π/4)=tan(π+π/4). Like that.
 
  • #4
The idea is to look at the graphs of functions to figure out properties that would be useful in solving the problems. For example, if you graph [tex]\sin x[/tex], you'll see that it's an odd function; in other words, it has the property [tex]\sin(x) = -\sin(-x)[/tex]. If [tex]x=-\pi/6[/tex], you can say [tex]\sin(-\pi/6) = -\sin[-(-\pi/6)] = -\sin(\pi/6)[/tex].
 
  • #5
Thanks guys. I guess I'm being slow, but I've had a few tries now and can't equate, e.g. sin(-pi/6) with either sin, cos, or tan of 1/3 or 1/6 pi.
For example:

sin(-pi/6) = -sin(pi/6)
fine.
cos(pi/6 + pi/2) = -sin(pi/6)
so
cos(4/6 pi) = sin(-pi/6)

but what I really want to equate the LHS to is
-cos(1/3 pi).
I know I'm being really slow, but I can't seem to get there.
 
  • #6
The graph does help a lot.
I can see that sin(-1/6 pi) is equal to cos exactly half pi earlier in the graph. So is there an identity that states sin(x - pi/2)=cos(x)?
If so, I've cracked it.
 
  • #7
Sorta but not quite.

Notice if you put x = 0, you'd get
sin (-pi/2) = cos 0 = 1 which is wrong. The right identity.

It'd be
[tex]
\sin (\frac{\pi}{2} - x ) = \cos x
[/tex]
 
  • #8
tomwilliam said:
The graph does help a lot.
I can see that sin(-1/6 pi) is equal to cos exactly half pi earlier in the graph. So is there an identity that states sin(x - pi/2)=cos(x)?
If so, I've cracked it.

should be sin(x-π/2)= -cos(x)
 
  • #9
Actually, I think Tom discovered the identity

[tex]sin(x+\frac{\pi}{2}) = cos x[/tex]

which just says that the graph of cosine is the sine shifted by [tex]\pi/2[/tex]. It's easy to screw up the sign of the phase shift because, to me, it seems like it should be the opposite sign intuitively. I always have to double-check to make sure I get it right.
 
  • #10
tomwilliam said:
Thanks guys. I guess I'm being slow, but I've had a few tries now and can't equate, e.g. sin(-pi/6) with either sin, cos, or tan of 1/3 or 1/6 pi.
You probably can't because that's actually kind of hard to do. :)

The problem wants you to figure out what [tex]\cos(5\pi/3)[/tex] equals in terms of [tex]\cos(\pi/6)[/tex] or [tex]\cos(\pi/3)[/tex]. Same with [tex]\tan(4\pi/3)[/tex] and [tex]\tan(\pi/6)[/tex] or [tex]\tan(\pi/3)[/tex].
 
  • #11
Thanks all.
Well I think I'm getting there.
I think for the first one I can just say

sin(pi/6)=0.5
sin (-x) = -sin(x), therefore
sin(-pi/6)=-sin(pi/6)=-0.5

Simple.

For the second one, I'm guessing I have to use:
cos(pi/3)=0.5
and somehow show that it is equal to:
cos(5pi/3).

I can see the graph very clearly, and understand why this is the case. But I'm not sure how I can show it. I know that as the angle goes from 0 to pi, the cosine of the angle goes from 1 to -1, and then as the angle goes from pi to 2pi, the cosine goes back round from -1 to 1. So of course, the cosine at 1/3 of the way round to pi will be the same as it is at 2pi - 1/3pi. But how to show that mathematically?

Thanks again, and sorry for being slow-witted.
 
  • #12
5π/3 = 2π- π/3

Use this.
 
  • #13
tomwilliam said:
For the second one, I'm guessing I have to use:
cos(pi/3)=0.5
and somehow show that it is equal to:
cos(5pi/3).

I can see the graph very clearly, and understand why this is the case. But I'm not sure how I can show it. I know that as the angle goes from 0 to pi, the cosine of the angle goes from 1 to -1, and then as the angle goes from pi to 2pi, the cosine goes back round from -1 to 1. So of course, the cosine at 1/3 of the way round to pi will be the same as it is at 2pi - 1/3pi. But how to show that mathematically?

Thanks again, and sorry for being slow-witted.
So essentially what you've figured out is that [tex]\cos x = \cos(2\pi - x)[/tex]. This another one of the many trig identities. You can just say

[tex]\cos 5\pi/3 = \cos(2\pi-\pi/3) = \cos \pi/3 = ...[/tex]
 

FAQ: Exact Values of Trig Functions at 1/3pi and 1/6pi with Symmetry - Homework Help

What is the exact value of sine at 1/3π and 1/6π?

Using the symmetry property of sine, we know that the value of sine at 1/3π is equal to the value of sine at 2/3π, which is √3/2. Similarly, the value of sine at 1/6π is equal to the value of sine at 5/6π, which is 1/2.

How do you find the exact value of cosine at 1/3π and 1/6π?

By using the symmetry property of cosine, we can find the value of cosine at 1/3π by evaluating the cosine at 2/3π, which is equal to 1/2. Similarly, the value of cosine at 1/6π is equal to the value of cosine at 5/6π, which is -√3/2.

Can the exact value of tangent be determined at 1/3π and 1/6π?

No, the exact value of tangent cannot be determined at 1/3π and 1/6π. This is because tangent is undefined at these angles, as the cosine of these angles is equal to 0, making the tangent value undefined.

How do you use symmetry to find the exact values of the inverse trigonometric functions at 1/3π and 1/6π?

To find the exact values of inverse trigonometric functions at 1/3π and 1/6π, we can use the symmetry property of these functions. For example, the inverse sine of √3/2 is 1/3π, so the inverse sine of -√3/2 is equal to -1/3π. Similarly, the inverse cosine of 1/2 is 1/6π, so the inverse cosine of -1/2 is equal to -1/6π.

Can symmetry be used to find the exact values of other trigonometric functions at 1/3π and 1/6π?

Yes, symmetry can be used to find the exact values of other trigonometric functions at 1/3π and 1/6π. This property is applicable to all trigonometric functions, including secant, cosecant, and cotangent. By using the symmetry property, we can find the values of these functions at 1/3π and 1/6π by evaluating the corresponding values at their symmetric angles.

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