- #1
Revan3
- 5
- 0
Okay so I am brushing up my Laplace transforms as an independent study and I come across this proof for the "division by t theorem". The idea proof it self I have no problems with except for the limits of the first integration, It feels like they just arbitrarily choose the limits to be from <s,inf> to so convienently get rid of the negative sign. Is there any explanation for the limits of integration?
here is the problem:
http://www.flickr.com/photos/64771553@N02/5897331839/in/photostream/
here are the related theorems:
http://www.flickr.com/photos/64771553@N02/5897942368/
here is the problem:
http://www.flickr.com/photos/64771553@N02/5897331839/in/photostream/
here are the related theorems:
http://www.flickr.com/photos/64771553@N02/5897942368/