Exploring the Infinitely Dense Real Number Line

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In summary, the conversation discusses a proof that any segment of finite length on the real number line is infinitely dense, meaning that all real numbers can be squeezed into it. The author uses a vector on a straight line and an equation combining two other equations to demonstrate this. Another participant suggests using the function f(x) = ½ + arctan(x)/pi to map every real number into the segment (0,1), showing that the order of infinity of all the reals from 0 to 1 is the same as all the reals from -infinity to infinity. This may seem strange due to the infinite nature of the sets being compared, but a one-to-one mapping between the two sets can be shown.
  • #1
MathAmateur
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Homework Statement



This is a proof (?) that (to quote the author): "any segment of finite length on the real number line is infinitely dense, in that you can squeeze all of the real numbers into it".

I can't follow all the steps and would appreciate an explanation.


Homework Equations


The author drew a straight line y=x from point (0,0) to point (0,1). He then ran a vector a long the line. The vector ran from coordinate (0,1) to the real number line ([tex] y= 1-\frac{x}{c} [/tex]) where c is the number on the number line. The vector traversed from 0 to 1 on the straight line that it crossed (y=x from 0 to 1) and from 0 to infinity along the real number line. He then says that combining the two equations (y= x and [tex] y= 1-\frac{x}{c} [/tex], you get [tex] y = \frac{x}{x+1} [/tex] and if you plug any positive real value into that equation you always get another number between 0 and 1


The Attempt at a Solution



I didn't see how he got the equation: [tex] y = \frac{x}{x+1} [/tex] from y=x and [tex] y= 1-\frac{x}{c} [/tex]. When I tried to solve for the two equations I got:
[tex] y-1 = \frac{x}{c} [/tex] and then [tex] c = \frac{x}{x -1} [/tex] and then substituting in I get y=x?? I am doing something wrong
 
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  • #2
I’m having difficulty following what you’re trying to explain, for one thing the point (0,1) isn’t on y=x.

But if you want to prove that we can map every number in the Reals uniquely into the segment (0,1) this isn’t so bad. If you’ve had any trig:

Consider f(x) = ½ + arctan(x)/pi

This function will take any real number and pack it into (0,1), and no two numbers go to the same number in (0,1)
 
  • #3
Sorry I did such a bad job explaining myself above. However I liked your proof.

I looked at the graph of arctan in Wickipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_trigonometric_functions). Since arctan runs from -1/2 pi to 1/2pi as x goes from -infinity to infinity monotonically, if one divides arctan by pi and adds 1/2 one gets one and only one of each of the reals from -infinity to infinity jammed somehow into the segment 0 to 1.

So the order of infinity of all the reals from 0 to 1 is the same as all the reals from -infinity to infinity? How strange.
 
  • #4
MathAmateur said:
Sorry I did such a bad job explaining myself above. However I liked your proof.

I looked at the graph of arctan in Wickipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_trigonometric_functions). Since arctan runs from -1/2 pi to 1/2pi as x goes from -infinity to infinity monotonically, if one divides arctan by pi and adds 1/2 one gets one and only one of each of the reals from -infinity to infinity jammed somehow into the segment 0 to 1.
You don't really divide "arctan" by anything any more than you would multiply [itex]\sqrt[/itex] by 3. The name of the function is arctan. A value it produces is arctan(x).

The range of the arctan function is (-pi/2, pi/2). Another way to say this is -pi/2 < arctan(x) < pi/2.

If you divide all three members of this inequality, you get
-1/2 < arctan(x)/pi < 1/2
If you add 1/2 to all three members, you get
0 < arctan(x)/pi + 1/2 < 1

The arctan function maps the real line (-infinity, +infinity) to (-pi/2, pi/2). The function arctan(x)/pi maps the real line to (-1/2, 1/2).
The function arctan(x)/pi + 1/2 maps the real line to (0, 1).
MathAmateur said:
So the order of infinity of all the reals from 0 to 1 is the same as all the reals from -infinity to infinity? How strange.

This seems strange because you're used to working with sets of a finite size. When you're working with sets with infinitely many members, a lot of the usual properties no longer apply. The only way to compare two infinite sets is by showing that there is a one-to-one mapping (function) between the two sets. In this problem, the one-to-one mapping is the function y = arctan(x)/pi + 1/2. Since this function is monotonically increasing on its domain (the reals), it is one-to-one. Since we have a one-to-one pairing between the reals and the interval (0, 1), the cardinality of the two sets is equal.
 
  • #5
Wow! This is really great stuff. Thank-you JonF and Mark44.
 

FAQ: Exploring the Infinitely Dense Real Number Line

What is a real number line?

A real number line is a graphical representation of all the real numbers, including both positive and negative numbers, marked on a straight line. It is an essential tool in understanding and visualizing the concept of real numbers.

How do I plot real numbers on a number line?

To plot a real number on a number line, locate the corresponding point on the line based on its value. For example, to plot the number 3, find the point that is three units to the right of the origin (0), and mark it with a dot. Similarly, to plot -5, find the point that is five units to the left of the origin and mark it with a dot.

What is the purpose of a real number line?

The real number line is used to represent and visualize real numbers and their relationships. It helps in understanding the concepts of addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division of real numbers, as well as their positions in relation to each other.

How can a real number line help with proofs?

A real number line can be a useful tool in proving mathematical statements involving real numbers. It provides a visual representation of the numbers involved and can help in understanding the relationships between them, making it easier to formulate and prove statements.

Can a real number line be used to represent irrational numbers?

Yes, a real number line can represent irrational numbers, such as pi or the square root of 2. These numbers are not expressible as fractions and have decimal representations that are non-terminating and non-repeating. They can be plotted on a number line using estimation or by using a ruler to measure the exact location.

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