- #1
sci-guy
- 47
- 0
The following must be false, since if it were true we'd have proof of a unified field, but can someone tell me why:
Why doesn't the fact that a quantum field, which by definition is infinite (correct me if I'm wrong), prove that there is essentially only one underlying quantum field? How can we have multiple infinite fields?
Why doesn't the fact that a quantum field, which by definition is infinite (correct me if I'm wrong), prove that there is essentially only one underlying quantum field? How can we have multiple infinite fields?