- #1
dnquark
- 13
- 0
The following formula is taken from a book by Rubakov:
[tex]A_\mu = \int_{k_0 \ge 0} [e^{ikx}a_\mu(k) + {\rm c.c.}] d^4k[/tex]
I am trying to understand why it makes sense to integrate only over the positive values of the frequency k0. (Pretty much any time I write down Fourier integrals, I integrate over the entire frequency space). Does it have something to do with the A four-vector being real valued?.. Something having to do with causality?..
[tex]A_\mu = \int_{k_0 \ge 0} [e^{ikx}a_\mu(k) + {\rm c.c.}] d^4k[/tex]
I am trying to understand why it makes sense to integrate only over the positive values of the frequency k0. (Pretty much any time I write down Fourier integrals, I integrate over the entire frequency space). Does it have something to do with the A four-vector being real valued?.. Something having to do with causality?..