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Homework Statement
I'm reading a proof and they make the following statement as if obvious: "Let f be a 2 pi-periodic function Lebesgue integrable on [-pi,pi]. Then given e>0, there is a 2 pi-periodic function g:R-->R continuous on [-pi,pi] such that
[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}|f-g|<\epsilon[/tex]
(In other words, [tex]C_{2\pi}[/tex] is dense in [tex]L^1_{2\pi}[/tex].)
Is the existence of such a g obvious?
The Attempt at a Solution
Let [tex]L^1_{\lambda}[/tex] denote the space of equivalence classes of integrable functions that are equal almost everywhere (that is to say [f]=[g] if f=g a.e.). I know that the space [tex]E^1_{\lambda}[/tex] of elementary function (i.e., function of the kind [tex]\phi=\sum_1^n a_k\mathbb{I}_{E_k}[/tex]) are dense in [tex]L^1_{\lambda}[/tex]. This means that I can find an elementary function [tex]\phi[/tex] such that
[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi}||f-\phi||_1=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}|f-\phi|<\epsilon/2[/tex].
Moreover, elementary functions are of bounded variation, which guaranties that their Fourier series converges to them almost everywhere (Dirichlet). But that convergence need not be uniform, so I cannot find an N such that letting g denote the N-th partial sum of the Fourier series of [tex]\phi[/tex], we have, for all x, [tex]|\phi(x) - g(x)|<2\pi\epsilon/2[/tex], and hence
[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi}||\phi-g||_1=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}|\phi-g|<\epsilon/2[/tex]
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