- #1
dyn
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- 61
Hi.
I came across the following in the solution to a question I was looking , regarding expectation values of momentum in 3-D
< p12p22p32 > = < p12 > < p22 > <p32 >
ie. the expectation value has been factorised. I can't figure out why this is true and also why it doesn't apply to the following. eg. < p12 > ≠ < p1 > < p1 > ?
Any thoughts would be appreciated. Thanks
I came across the following in the solution to a question I was looking , regarding expectation values of momentum in 3-D
< p12p22p32 > = < p12 > < p22 > <p32 >
ie. the expectation value has been factorised. I can't figure out why this is true and also why it doesn't apply to the following. eg. < p12 > ≠ < p1 > < p1 > ?
Any thoughts would be appreciated. Thanks