Faraday's paradox: homopolar generator on a train

In summary, the homopolar generator on a train moving at 215 km/h will not generate any current because the magnet and disk are not rotating together, but rather moving along with the train. However, when the disk and magnet are rotated together, there is current induced, which is a paradox. This can be explained by considering the motion of electrons relative to the magnetic field. It is important that the charges and magnetic field have a relative velocity that is not completely aligned for there to be a current. It is also important to use the Lorentz transformation and the covariance of Maxwell's equations to argue about this phenomenon.
  • #36
jartsa said:
...and the voltmeter is measuring the voltage of the generator that is not being cranked.

How's that?


If you move the voltmeter relative to the generator, then there is a voltage. The voltmeter prongs must move too, they must slide on the generator disk. If the velocity of the voltmeter happens to be 0, then the train is doing all the work required to push charges trough the voltmeter.

Voltmeter is not moving in none of the three setups.

1.) disk rotates, magnet stationary -> induced current
2.) magnet rotates, disk stationary -> no current (paradox 1)
3.) disk and magnet rotate together -> induced current (paradox 2)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Faraday's_Paradox
 
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  • #37
carrz, you are being confrontational and that's not going to get you anywhere.
 
  • #38
carrz said:
How's that?




Voltmeter is not moving in none of the three setups.

1.) disk rotates, magnet stationary -> induced current
2.) magnet rotates, disk stationary -> no current (paradox 1)
3.) disk and magnet rotate together -> induced current (paradox 2)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Faraday's_Paradox

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=737583

The above thread is where I attached a paper by Dr. Munley of Univ of Va. He explains the disk but not very completely. Understanding how the charges move from center to rim of disk is the key. I will comment if needed. No paradox at all here, just geometry and following the Lorentz force on the electrons in the disk, looking at the path.

1) Consensus, we indeed have induced current as Faraday predicts.
2) No induced current, as is expected. Magnet moving does not change the field in the disk. Disk is stationary and electrons have no velocity wrt B field, so no Lorentz force acts on them. No paradox at all.
3) Disk & magnet rotating together is identical to case 1). Rotating the magnet does not change the B field encountered by the disk. No paradox at all.

Comments/questions/feedback are welcome, best regards.

Claude
 
  • #39
carrz said:
How's that?

I just meant the voltmeter measures some voltage, voltage is zero volts in that spesific case.

Voltmeter is not moving in none of the three setups.

1.) disk rotates, magnet stationary -> induced current
2.) magnet rotates, disk stationary -> no current (paradox 1)
3.) disk and magnet rotate together -> induced current (paradox 2)


Ok.

Let me ask a question: Bob is cranking a homopolar generator. Bob is applying a torque on the disk and on the magnet, but the disk and the magnet are rotating at constant rate. What is applying an opposite torque on the disk and the magnet? (Disk and magnet rotate together in this generator)
 
  • #40
carrz said:
I'd say it's lacking and it leaves many questions open.

I disagree. I read through it and the explanation looked fairly thorough.


Also this:
- "Several experiments have been proposed using electrostatic measurements or electron beams to resolve the issue, but apparently none have been successfully performed to date."

As the wiki says, in case 2 the magnet is rotated and no current is observed. Therefore either the magnetic field is not rotating with the magnet, or this type of rotating magnetic field does not induce a current. Either one agrees with observations.

That part doesn't make sense. How can possibly magnetic field not rotate with the magnetic material?

First, realize that field lines/flux lines are not real objects. They are merely a way of representing the strength and direction of the field, just like contour lines on a map represent elevation. In reality the field strength is one smooth continuum with gradual transitions between field strengths of different areas. When the cylindrical magnet is rotated, the field remains exactly the same at all points and there is no change to induce a current in the disk.
 
  • #41
carrz said:
There is a homopolar generator on a train moving at 215 km/h. The magnet of the generator is attached to the disk so they would rotate together, but they are stationary now, except that they are moving along with the train. Is there any current generated by the generator?

I expect the answer will be "no", so next I ask what is the difference between the disk and the magnet rotating together, and them moving together along in a train?



I would like to answer the question: What is same between the disk and the magnet rotating together, and them moving together along in a train?

Answer: Electrons in the disk do not feel a lorentz force.

What happens if the brush of a homopolar generator accidentally becomes welded to the disk? Answer: The generator stops generating current, immediateletely when the motion between the disk and the wires disappears.

The disk and the wires are moving together in that damaged homopolar generator -> no current
The disk and the wires are moving together in that train -> no current
 
  • #42
cabraham said:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=737583

The above thread is where I attached a paper by Dr. Munley of Univ of Va. He explains the disk but not very completely. Understanding how the charges move from center to rim of disk is the key. I will comment if needed. No paradox at all here, just geometry and following the Lorentz force on the electrons in the disk, looking at the path.

I don't see that paper addresses the case where the magnet is rotating together with the disk.


2) No induced current, as is expected. Magnet moving does not change the field in the disk. Disk is stationary and electrons have no velocity wrt B field, so no Lorentz force acts on them. No paradox at all.

Electrons move around protons, and beside Biot-Savart magnetic fields they also have their spin magnetic moments. It works when we move a magnet relative to stationary coil, so conductor being stationary or not is not an issue, it must be something else. What's the difference?


3) Disk & magnet rotating together is identical to case 1). Rotating the magnet does not change the B field encountered by the disk. No paradox at all.

So why exactly would electrons move towards the rim of the wheel? And once they arrive there, why would they want go back to the center of the disk but only the other way around through the galvanometer and connecting wires?
 
  • #43
carrz said:
Electrons move around protons, and beside Biot-Savart magnetic fields they also have their spin magnetic moments. It works when we move a magnet relative to stationary coil, so conductor being stationary or not is not an issue, it must be something else. What's the difference?

The difference is that when you move a magnet towards a coil, the magnetic field is changing over time. When you rotate the magnet the field is not changing at all. And yes, it does matter if the conductor is stationary or not, as has been shown more than once.

So why exactly would electrons move towards the rim of the wheel? And once they arrive there, why would they want go back to the center of the disk but only the other way around through the galvanometer and connecting wires?

Because the electrons, being in motion through a magnetic field, experience a force that causes them to move. This means a voltage is developed in the circuit and so current flows. The galvanometer and wires provide a path for the current to flow
 
  • #44
Drakkith said:
When the cylindrical magnet is rotated, the field remains exactly the same at all points and there is no change to induce a current in the disk.

You are talking about this:
http://www.zamandayolculuk.com/cetinbal/AE/disk-dynamo1.gif


I'm talking about this:
popup_3.jpg



For the second case I'm talking about you can not possibly say that magnetic field is not rotating with the magnet, it must be where its source is. There is no any theory or experiment that says otherwise.

So when the magnet rotates, in the 2nd setup I'm talking about, and the disk is stationary, the disk is actually "cutting" through different density flux lines just like stationary coil is cutting through the flux lines of a moving magnet, but there is no induction in the disk, only coil. And when the magnet rotates together with the disk, the disk is not "cutting" through any flux lines and yet the current is induced. It's exactly the opposite than Faraday's law of induction predicts, hence "paradox".
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #45
Drakkith said:
The difference is that when you move a magnet towards a coil, the magnetic field is changing over time. When you rotate the magnet the field is not changing at all.

Magnetic field of those disk magnets is not changing when the magnets are stationary as well, so why is then current induced when they are stationary and the conducting disk is spinning?


And yes, it does matter if the conductor is stationary or not, as has been shown more than once.

It matters for a disk, not for a coil. The mystery relation is obviously geometrical, not just temporal.


Because the electrons, being in motion through a magnetic field, experience a force that causes them to move. This means a voltage is developed in the circuit and so current flows. The galvanometer and wires provide a path for the current to flow

But they have open pathway to go either way and potential difference is the same. If the disk is of less resistance than connecting wires wouldn't electrons rather want to go back the same way they came, when the magnet is on the opposite side of the disk for example?
 
  • #46
Speaking about coils...

faraday-law-1.jpg


1. coil moves, magnet stationary -> induced current
2. magnet moves, coil stationary -> induced current
3. coil and magnet move together -> current induced?
 
  • #47
Ad #44: Finally you provided a clear picture. The upper one is the classical Faraday Disk setup. Of course, an EMF is induced. The calculation is precisely the same as the one I've given yesterday. It doesn't matter here, whether the magnet is rotating with the disk or not. The EMF is due to the drift of the electrons in the conductor which builds up an electric field.

The 2nd setup is not as clear to me, because it's not properly written what represents what. I guess the horse-shoe shaped thing is the magnet and you consider two cases: (a) only the disk is rotating and the magnet stays fixed and (b) the magnet is fixed at the disk and rotating with it. In both cases you measure an EMF. In case (a) it's qualitatively the same as with the first case: The magnetic field is time-independent and the electrons in the conductor drift due to the Lorentz force [itex]\vec{v}\times \vec{B}/c[/itex] building up an electric field. In case (b) the magnet is rotating and thus you have both a magnetic and an electric field. In principle you can calculate both by using Maxwell's equations, noting that the magnetization of the permanent magnet is equivalent to a current [itex]\vec{j}_{\text{mag}}=c \vec{\nabla} \times \vec{M}[/itex]. In any case the electrons in the conducting disk are drifting again due to the Lorentz force due to the electromagnetic field of the rotating magnet.
 
  • #48
Ad #46: If the magnet and the coil move uniformly together, no EMF is induced. You can just Lorentz boost to the frame, where both are at rest, and thus you immediately see that there's no "voltage" shown by the galvanometer. This, of course, holds true in any reference frame, i.e., also in the frame where both magnet and coil move together.
 
  • #49
carrz said:
You are talking about this:

I'm talking about this:

In the 2nd picture, is the magnet the blue horseshoe bar on top? If so, that's a different setup than what's usually discussed. Typically the magnet is at least as big as the disk so that as the disk rotates, the field is static. If the magnet is much smaller than the disk, and placed at the edge, I expect there will be a different answer than normal.
 
  • #50
Drakkith said:
In the 2nd picture, is the magnet the blue horseshoe bar on top? If so, that's a different setup than what's usually discussed. Typically the magnet is at least as big as the disk so that as the disk rotates, the field is static. If the magnet is much smaller than the disk, and placed at the edge, I expect there will be a different answer than normal.

Yes, blue horseshoe thing is the magnet. That's the original design Faraday used, that's what he was talking about when he was puzzled with the paradox himself, so I don't think it produces different results than disk magnets, but we can analyze both and see how it fits.

220px-Faraday_disk_generator.jpg

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homopolar_generator
 
  • #51
carrz said:
Yes, blue horseshoe thing is the magnet. That's the original design Faraday used, that's what he was talking about when he was puzzled with the paradox himself, so I don't think it produces different results than disk magnets, but we can analyze both and see how it fits.

Well, for one thing, the magnet is no longer simply rotating, but moving around the edge of the disk so that a varying magnetic field is felt by the charges in the disk. This should result in an induced electric field that exerts a radial force on the charges and causes current to flow. The effects should be exactly the same as when the disk is spinning and the magnet is stationary.
 
  • #52
vanhees71 said:
Ad #44: Finally you provided a clear picture. The upper one is the classical Faraday Disk setup. Of course, an EMF is induced. The calculation is precisely the same as the one I've given yesterday. It doesn't matter here, whether the magnet is rotating with the disk or not. The EMF is due to the drift of the electrons in the conductor which builds up an electric field.

The EMF is due to the drift of the electrons. And drift of electrons is due to Lorentz force. So then what is Lorentz force due in the 1st scenario, why there is no Lorenz force in the 2nd scenario, and what is Lorentz force due in the 3rd scenario?


The 2nd setup is not as clear to me, because it's not properly written what represents what. I guess the horse-shoe shaped thing is the magnet and you consider two cases: (a) only the disk is rotating and the magnet stays fixed and (b) the magnet is fixed at the disk and rotating with it. In both cases you measure an EMF. In case (a) it's qualitatively the same as with the first case: The magnetic field is time-independent and the electrons in the conductor drift due to the Lorentz force [itex]\vec{v}\times \vec{B}/c[/itex] building up an electric field.

What is that velocity of and what is it relative to?


In case (b) the magnet is rotating and thus you have both a magnetic and an electric field. In principle you can calculate both by using Maxwell's equations, noting that the magnetization of the permanent magnet is equivalent to a current [itex]\vec{j}_{\text{mag}}=c \vec{\nabla} \times \vec{M}[/itex]. In any case the electrons in the conducting disk are drifting again due to the Lorentz force due to the electromagnetic field of the rotating magnet.

What is the difference between the magnet and the disk spinning together and them being stationary on a train that circles around the world?
 
  • #53
This thread is hopelessly confused. There are at least three different sets of scenarios, some with three sub scenarios being discussed, and the OP throws in a train to make it more confusing.

Carrz, please start a new thread picking at most two scenarios (or one scenario in two reference frames), as simple as possible, clearly described, and stick to those alone. Everyone else, please stick with the requested scenario in your comments.

Carrz, please realize that a paper may not exactly duplicate your scenario, but still provide value, if you think that it is substantively inapplicable please explain in detail why. Simple dismissal of referenced material is irritating to people who did the research and thought it would help.
 
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