- #1
ZombieCat
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Hello all,
This may be my very first post on Physics Forums. I am a 1st year physics grad student and need some help on something that's been bugging me. Suppose we have two spin half particles in a bound state. The total spin will either be 0 or 1. The spin 0 state, for example, would be symmetric (even parity right?) so it would need an antisymmetric spatial wavefunction to make the overall wavefunction antisymmetric since we have fermions? But then I thought the overall wavefunction may be symmetric because the total spin is that of a boson?
Rephrased, my question is this: would the total wavefunction have to be antisymmetric since we are dealing with fermions, or would it be symmetric since the total spin is that of a boson?
Which is it and why?
If we came along and didn't know that there were two fermions in there would we think it was a boson?
Does the fermions being in a bound state matter? What about the shape of the potential?
This may be my very first post on Physics Forums. I am a 1st year physics grad student and need some help on something that's been bugging me. Suppose we have two spin half particles in a bound state. The total spin will either be 0 or 1. The spin 0 state, for example, would be symmetric (even parity right?) so it would need an antisymmetric spatial wavefunction to make the overall wavefunction antisymmetric since we have fermions? But then I thought the overall wavefunction may be symmetric because the total spin is that of a boson?
Rephrased, my question is this: would the total wavefunction have to be antisymmetric since we are dealing with fermions, or would it be symmetric since the total spin is that of a boson?
Which is it and why?
If we came along and didn't know that there were two fermions in there would we think it was a boson?
Does the fermions being in a bound state matter? What about the shape of the potential?