- #1
asmae
- 1
- 0
- TL;DR Summary
- Feynman parametrization integration by parts
How can i move from this expression:
$$\frac{4}{\pi^{4}} \int dk \frac{1}{k^2} \frac{1}{(1+i(k-k_{f}))^3} \frac{1}{(1+i(k-k_{i}))^3}$$
to this one:
$$\frac{4}{\pi^{4}} \int dk \frac{1}{k^2} \frac{1}{(1+|k-k_{i}|^2)^2} \frac{1}{(1+|k-k_{f}|^2)^2}$$
using Feynman parametrization (Integration by parts)
$$\frac{4}{\pi^{4}} \int dk \frac{1}{k^2} \frac{1}{(1+i(k-k_{f}))^3} \frac{1}{(1+i(k-k_{i}))^3}$$
to this one:
$$\frac{4}{\pi^{4}} \int dk \frac{1}{k^2} \frac{1}{(1+|k-k_{i}|^2)^2} \frac{1}{(1+|k-k_{f}|^2)^2}$$
using Feynman parametrization (Integration by parts)
Last edited by a moderator: