- #36
cianfa72
- 2,454
- 255
Yes, in that case (topological manifolds alone) the isomorphism is actually an homeomorphism.WWGD said:Maybe the manifolds themselves only have a topological structure, not a differentiable one?
Btw up to dimension 3, every topological manifold admits a differentiable structure and all these structures are equivalent.
Last edited: