- #1
Calabi_Yau
- 35
- 1
Let Fn denote the Fibonacci sequence.
un is the sequence given by: un= Fn+1/Fn. Show that mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex][itex]\frac{1}{\phi}[/itex]mod(un-1-[itex]\phi[/itex]) and therefore mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex] [itex]\frac{1}{\phin-1}[/itex][/itex]mod(u1-[itex]\phi[/itex]) and then conclude un converges to [itex]\phi[/itex]
I have tried with the identity [itex]\phi[/itex] = 1+ [itex]\frac{1}{\phi}[/itex] if anything came to light... And I tried dividing the mods but it got even more complicated.
I can prove from the seocnd equation that un converges to [itex]\phi[/itex] as n-1 converges to infinity and thus 1/+inf =0, the right side becomes zero and we get mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex]0 which is the definiton of convergence. But I can't get from the first equation to the second. I don't know how to pass from un-1 to u1 and the part of the [itex]\phi[/itex]n-1. Can someone shed some light on this issue?
un is the sequence given by: un= Fn+1/Fn. Show that mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex][itex]\frac{1}{\phi}[/itex]mod(un-1-[itex]\phi[/itex]) and therefore mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex] [itex]\frac{1}{\phin-1}[/itex][/itex]mod(u1-[itex]\phi[/itex]) and then conclude un converges to [itex]\phi[/itex]
I have tried with the identity [itex]\phi[/itex] = 1+ [itex]\frac{1}{\phi}[/itex] if anything came to light... And I tried dividing the mods but it got even more complicated.
I can prove from the seocnd equation that un converges to [itex]\phi[/itex] as n-1 converges to infinity and thus 1/+inf =0, the right side becomes zero and we get mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex]0 which is the definiton of convergence. But I can't get from the first equation to the second. I don't know how to pass from un-1 to u1 and the part of the [itex]\phi[/itex]n-1. Can someone shed some light on this issue?