- #1
physiguy
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Say you have a paramagnetic (or diamagnetic) sphere (or some other shape) and you apply a field of H = 10 Oe. Now, we have [itex]H=(1/\mu)B-M[/itex].
That would indicate that outside of the material, B and H are essentially the same, right? B = 10 Gauss, outside of the material.
But shouldn't the magnetization of the material affect the field outside, as well?
Certainly if these were permanent magnets it would. I would expect that in all cases we would want to integrate M over the volume of our shape, then calculate the field from that dipole moment. But these equations seem to suggest that would be zero. Or am I misunderstanding their terms?
Thanks!
That would indicate that outside of the material, B and H are essentially the same, right? B = 10 Gauss, outside of the material.
But shouldn't the magnetization of the material affect the field outside, as well?
Certainly if these were permanent magnets it would. I would expect that in all cases we would want to integrate M over the volume of our shape, then calculate the field from that dipole moment. But these equations seem to suggest that would be zero. Or am I misunderstanding their terms?
Thanks!