Why Integrate Over Entire Conducting Rail Instead of Bar Area?

In summary, the integral in the solution represents the area of the loop, not just the area of the bar itself. It is a way to measure the potential at the end of the rails, and it prepares you for more complex problems in the future.
  • #1
baby_1
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Hello
here is a problem that we want to find induced voltage in two different questions.
9801661400_1401797190.png

1-here is part (a) solution:
2541317200_1401797190.png

question 1:why we get integral in all space of conducting rail instead of bar space?(Area of bar)for example if we enlarge the space and set bar fix again induced voltage increase?
2-here is part (b) solution
6243701400_1401797457.png

1-why we get integral from (.06) to (0) instead of y changes?(0 to .08) because velocity is in y direction?and why form .06 to 0 not 0 to .06?

any help appreciated
 
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  • #2
It looks to me as though your textbook's/courswork's style is to first write out everything in general form, even if it can be easily simplified. And only then simplify it.

In other words, even if the integral is a trivial integral, it still writes it out first in the solution, before evaluating the integral.

baby_1 said:
Hello
here is a problem that we want to find induced voltage in two different questions.
9801661400_1401797190.png

1-here is part (a) solution:
2541317200_1401797190.png

question 1:why we get integral in all space of conducting rail instead of bar space?(Area of bar)for example if we enlarge the space and set bar fix again induced voltage increase?

The integral represents the area of the loop, not the area of the bar itself.

Imagine connecting a voltmeter at the ends of the two rails, where y=0.

Or if it helps, imagine that the bar has some resistance to it, and the rails have zero resistance.

Or imagine that nothing is connected to the ends of the rails, and the bar and the rails all have zero resistance. What is the potential at the end of the rails (from one rail to the other, where y=0)?

I agree, your textbook/coursework could have been more clear where this potential is to be measured. It's a little ambiguous the way it is.

2-here is part (b) solution
6243701400_1401797457.png

1-why we get integral from (.06) to (0) instead of y changes?(0 to .08) because velocity is in y direction?and why form .06 to 0 not 0 to .06?

any help appreciated

The integral from [itex] \ell [/itex] to 0 is just a fancy way of saying that the length of the rod is of length [itex] \ell [/itex] in this case (and it also gives you indication of the polarity of the emf). It's a trivial integral in this case. It seems to me like it's just your textbook's style to do that.

Keeping it integral form can come in handy though, if the bar wasn't straight. Suppose it was some sort of curvy shape. Or suppose the rails were not parallel, and length changed with time. Then you might actually need to integrate something more complicated. Setting things up in integral form is something I suspect your textbook/coursework is doing to prepare you for more complicated problems in the future.
 
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FAQ: Why Integrate Over Entire Conducting Rail Instead of Bar Area?

1. How is induced voltage in a loop calculated?

The induced voltage in a loop is calculated using Faraday's Law of Induction, which states that the induced voltage is equal to the negative rate of change of magnetic flux through the loop.

2. What factors affect the magnitude of induced voltage in a loop?

The magnitude of induced voltage in a loop is affected by the strength of the magnetic field, the size and shape of the loop, and the rate at which the magnetic field changes.

3. Can induced voltage be negative?

Yes, induced voltage can be negative. If the direction of the magnetic flux through the loop changes, the induced voltage will also change direction and can be negative.

4. How does the number of loops in a coil affect induced voltage?

The greater the number of loops in a coil, the greater the induced voltage will be. This is because each loop contributes to the overall magnetic flux through the coil, resulting in a stronger induced voltage.

5. Is induced voltage the same as electromotive force (EMF)?

Yes, induced voltage and EMF are often used interchangeably. EMF refers to the voltage generated by a source, while induced voltage specifically refers to the voltage induced in a loop or coil due to a changing magnetic field.

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