- #1
A.Magnus
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I am working on a classical real analysis problem as follow:
The answers from solution manual are respectively $ int (A) = \emptyset$ and $bd (A) = \{0\} \cup \{ \frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb N \}$. And here are my textbook's definition of interior point and border point:
And then there is also this:
The answer to $bd (A) = \{0\} \cup \{ \frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb N \}$ is understandably the direct consequence of $int (A) = \emptyset $, i.e., if none of the elements of $A$ is interior point, then all of them must be border points, plus the zero.
But what troubles me is this: What happens if I instead answer $int(A)$ first and then $bd (A)$ second? Am I going to get the same answers?
(i) For $\{0\}$, I was tempted to conclude that zero is indeed a border point because $N (0 | \epsilon) \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N (0 | \epsilon) \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$ for all $\epsilon >0$. But had I not just concluded above that $N (x | \epsilon)$ does not exist in $A$?
(ii) How about for the rest of the points, i.e., $\frac{1}{n}$? How do I conclude $N (\frac{1}{n} | \epsilon ) \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N (\frac{1}{n} | \epsilon ) \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$ for all possible $\epsilon >0$?
I think I must have missed something here. Any help would therefore be very much appreciated. Thank you for your time and gracious help. ~MA
Find $int (A)$ and $bd (A)$ if $A = \{ \frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb N \}= \{ \frac{1}{1}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, ... \}$.
The answers from solution manual are respectively $ int (A) = \emptyset$ and $bd (A) = \{0\} \cup \{ \frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb N \}$. And here are my textbook's definition of interior point and border point:
Let $A \subseteq \mathbb R$. A point $x$ in $\mathbb R$ is an interior point of A if there exists a neighborhood $N$ of $x$ such that $N \subseteq A$. If for every neighborhood of $N$ of $x$, $N \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$, then $x$ is a border point of $A$.
And then there is also this:
To my inexperienced mind, the answer to $int (A) = \emptyset $ is understandable because while neighborhood $N (x | \epsilon >0)$ is an open set (per textbook), but $A = \{ \frac{1}{1}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, ... \}$ is incomplete, meaning that there is gap between any two consecutive elements of $A$. Therefore by technicality $N (x | \epsilon )$ does not exist inside $A$. (Am I correct here?)Every point $x \in A$ is either interior or border point of $A$.
The answer to $bd (A) = \{0\} \cup \{ \frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb N \}$ is understandably the direct consequence of $int (A) = \emptyset $, i.e., if none of the elements of $A$ is interior point, then all of them must be border points, plus the zero.
But what troubles me is this: What happens if I instead answer $int(A)$ first and then $bd (A)$ second? Am I going to get the same answers?
(i) For $\{0\}$, I was tempted to conclude that zero is indeed a border point because $N (0 | \epsilon) \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N (0 | \epsilon) \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$ for all $\epsilon >0$. But had I not just concluded above that $N (x | \epsilon)$ does not exist in $A$?
(ii) How about for the rest of the points, i.e., $\frac{1}{n}$? How do I conclude $N (\frac{1}{n} | \epsilon ) \cap A \neq \emptyset$ and $N (\frac{1}{n} | \epsilon ) \cap A^c \neq \emptyset$ for all possible $\epsilon >0$?
I think I must have missed something here. Any help would therefore be very much appreciated. Thank you for your time and gracious help. ~MA